I have said ad nauseum we are under Grace for salvation. But you just need to believe I am not saying it so you have somewhere to hide.
I see you are doubling down on trying to use Paul to teach lawlessness despite Peters warning this shows you to be unstable or unlearned. You try to make Paul contradict himself like he is a crazy man. He didn't and he wasn't. Nor did he contradict Messiah how could he. You must think Paul to have been mad! A raving lunatic!
As the Eliyah research says;
Paul never said the Law was abolished. Read for yourself.
*
The following is a collection of clear scriptures showing that Paul never taught that we are free to disobey the Law (Hebrew: Torah).
I only ask that everyone read all of this study (please do not skim thru) before coming to a conclusion.
First off, it's obvious that Paul himself believed in keeping the Law:
Acts 24:14 (NKJV) - "But this I confess to you, that according to the Way which they call a sect, so I worship the Elohim of my fathers, believing all things which are written in the Law and in the Prophets.*
Acts 25:8 - while he answered for himself, "Neither against the Law of the Jews, nor against the temple, nor against Caesar have I offended in anything at all."
Acts 18:21 - but took leave of them, saying, "I must by all means keep this coming feast in Jerusalem; but I will return again to you, Yahweh willing." And he sailed from Ephesus.
Romans 7:25 - I thank Yahweh--through Yahushua the Messiah our Master! So then, with the mind I myself serve the Law of Yahweh, but with the flesh the Law of sin.
Paul taught the disciples not to let anyone judge them for observing the Law*(See*Colossians study):
Colo 2:16-17 - So let no one judge you in food or in drink, or regarding a festival or a new moon or sabbaths, which are a shadow of things to come, but the body of the Messiah.
Paul says that the doers of the Law will be justified and those who break it will be judged.
Romans 2:12 - For as many as have sinned without Law will also perish without Law, and as many as have sinned in the Law will be judged by the Law 13 (for not the hearers of the Law [are] just in the sight of Yahweh, but the doers of the Law will be justified;
The word that is translated "without Law" here is word #460 which means "not amenable to the Jewish/Mosaic Law". (See Thayers and Strong's lexicon).*Paul says that we know His will and approve the things that are excellent when instructed out of the Law.
Romans 2:17 - Indeed you are called a Jew, and rest on the Law, and make your boast in Yahweh, 18 and know [His] will, and approve the things that are excellent, being instructed out of the Law, 19 and are confident that you yourself are a guide to the blind, a light to those who are in darkness, 20 an instructor of the foolish, a teacher of babes, having the form of knowledge and truth in the Law.
Here he says that when we break the Law, we dishonor Yahweh and blaspheme His name.*
Romans 2:21 You, therefore, who teach another, do you not teach yourself? You who preach that a man should not steal, do you steal? 22 You who say, "Do not commit adultery," do you commit adultery? You who abhor idols, do you rob temples? 23 You who make your boast in the Law, do you dishonor Yahweh through breaking the Law? 24 For "the name of Yahweh is blasphemed among the Gentiles because of you," as it is written.
Here Paul twice states that we learn what sin is from the Law. This backs up the statement in 1John 3:4 that Sin is transgression of the Law.
Romans 3:20 - Therefore by the deeds of the Law no flesh will be justified in His sight, for by the Law [is] the knowledge of sin.
Romans 7:7 - What shall we say then? [Is] the Law sin? Certainly not! On the contrary, I would not have known sin except through the Law. For I would not have known covetousness unless the Law had said, "You shall not covet."
Here is a key scripture proving that Paul believed that thru faith we do not make the Law void, but rather we establish the Law (To cause or make to stand, #2476).
Romans 3:31 - Do we then make void the Law through faith? Certainly not! On the contrary, we establish the Law.
Here is another key scripture like the one above proving that Paul did not believe that once we are under grace, that we can continue to sin (break the Law):
Romans 6:15 - What then? Shall we sin because we are not under Law but under grace? Certainly not! 16 Do you not know that to whom you present yourselves slaves to obey, you are that one's slaves whom you obey, whether of sin [leading] to death, or of obedience [leading] to righteousness?
Here Paul is equating "the Law" with "the commandment" and stating his opinion of them:
Romans 7:12 - Therefore the Law [is] holy, and the commandment holy and just and good.
Here is an unpopular statement of Paul's. Many like to believe that the Law is of the flesh. Not true! It's spiritual:
Romans 7:14 - For we know that the Law is spiritual, but I am carnal, sold under sin.
Paul delights in the Law of Yahweh
Romans 7:22 - For I delight in the Law of Yahweh according to the inward man.
Now we will move on to where Paul uses the term "Lawlessness". The word that is translated "Lawlessness" in the following verses is the Greek word*"anomia"which carries the following definition:
BDB/Thayers #*458
458 anomia {an-om-ee'-ah}
from 459; TDNT - 4:1085,646; n f
AV - iniquity 12, unrighteousness 1, transgress the law + 4060 1,
transgression of the law 1; 15
1) the condition of without law
1a) because ignorant of it
1b) because of violating it
2) contempt and violation of law, iniquity, wickedness
Now for a second witness here is the definition of this in the Strong's Hebrew Lexicon:
458. anomia, an-om-ee'-ah; from 459;illegality, i.e.*violation of the law*or (gen.) wickedness: --- iniquity X transgress (ion of) the law, unrighteousness.
Now note that both lexicons it states that both of these words come from the Greek word #459. This word means "To be destitute or in violation of the Mosaic or Jewish Law" (See Thayer's and Strong's Lexicons). Now the word #458 is translated "transgression of the Law" in the King James version of 1john 3:4
1Joh 3:4 (KJV) Whosoever committeth sin transgresseth also the Law: for sin is the transgression of the Law.
Yes, this was written by John but it is surely showing that this word is certainly the definition of sin. For sin is "anomia" (condition of being without the Law or violation of the Law, transgression of the Law)
In these verses he shows that righteousness is the opposite of Lawlessness (#458 in violation of the Law). Therefore if one is keeping the Law, they must walking in righteousness. (Though this is confirmed already by many verses I have already shown.) Please also remember this for later in the study.
Romans 6:19 - I speak in human [terms] because of the weakness of your flesh. For just as you presented your members [as] slaves of uncleanness, and of Lawlessness [leading] to [more] Lawlessness, so now present your members [as] slaves [of] righteousness for holiness.
2Cor 6:14 - Do not be unequally yoked together with unbelievers. For what fellowship has righteousness with Lawlessness? And what communion has light with darkness?
Here again, Paul equates this word (#458) Lawless with SIN.
Romans 4:7 - "Blessed [are those] whose Lawless deeds are forgiven, And whose sins are covered;*
Now here is an example where this word is used when translating the Old Testament.
Hebr 1:9 - You have loved righteousness and hated Lawlessness (#458); Therefore Elohim, Your Elohim, has anointed You. With the oil of gladness more than Your companions."
Now this is interesting...here is an example of where the New Testament is quoting from the old testament. (From the Hebrew to the greek). Now what word does this greek word #458 translate from? Let's find out:
Psal 45:6 (KJV) Thy throne, O El', [is] for ever and ever: the sceptre of thy kingdom [is] a right sceptre. 7 Thou lovest righteousness, and hatest wickedness:*(From the greek #458)*therefore El', thy El', hath anointed thee with the oil of gladness above thy fellows.
So it comes from the Hebrew word reshah (#7562) which means "Wickedness" !! Now how is this word used in other places in scripture? Here we seen an example of a Psalm that makes wickedness the opposite of righteousness. (Just as Paul taught).
Now this study might go on forever and ever proving that the meaning of what Paul meant by "righteousness" was obedience to the Law but lets look at some examples.
Romans 6:16 - Do you not know that to whom you present yourselves slaves to obey, you are that one's slaves whom you obey, whether of sin [leading] to death, or of obedience [leading] to righteousness?
Here obedience is equated with righteousness (as defined by the Law)
Romans 10:5 - For Moses writes about the righteousness which is of the Law, "The man who does those things shall live by them."
Here are many other scriptures then where Paul says that we ought to walk in righteousness:
Ephe 5:8 - For you were once darkness, but now [you] [are] light in Yahweh. Walk as children of light* 9 (for the fruit of the Spirit [is] in all goodness, righteousness, and truth), 10 finding out what is acceptable to Yahweh. 11 And have no fellowship with the unfruitful works of darkness, but rather expose [them].
Ephe 6:14 - Stand therefore, having girded your waist with truth, having put on the breastplate of righteousness,
Phil 1:9 - And this I pray, that your love may abound still more and more in knowledge and all discernment, Phil 1:10 that you may approve the things that are excellent, that you may be sincere and without offense till the day of the Messiah, Phil 1:11 being filled with the fruits of righteousness which [are] by Yahushua the Messiah, to the glory and praise of Yahweh.
2Tim 2:22 - Flee also youthful lusts; but pursue righteousness, faith, love, peace with those who call on Yahweh out of a pure heart. 23 - But avoid foolish and ignorant disputes, knowing that they generate strife.
Here is an example where Paul takes another step forward in showing that ALL SCRIPTURE (which must include the Law of Yahweh because there was no written "new testament" at that time) is given by Yahweh, profitable for doctrine, for reproof and*instruction in righteousness.
2Tim 3:16 - All Scripture [is] given by inspiration of Yahweh, and [is] profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness,17 that the man of Yahweh may be complete, thoroughly equipped for every good work.
Now in conclusion I must say that there would have to be very little doubt that according to these verses in which Paul spoke, he certainly upheld the Law as the very definition of righteousness and holiness. And he taught that breaking these commandments were Unrighteousness, Lawlessness, wickedness, and most importantly, SIN.
Therefore we can conclude that whenever Paul speaks of Sin...he most certainly is talking about disobeying the commandments in the Law. How many more scriptures could be added where Paul speaks against sin? This study would certainly be many pages long!
Therefore, we can see that it must have been obvious to Paul as well as quite obvious to his followers that Law obedience was expected. I believe that many of the details of Law observance were worked out in their public meetings as well as in the synagogues (see where James made the decision in Acts 15 that the Gentiles would learn the Law on the synagogues every Sabbath).
In light of all of these scriptures, it is quite clear that breaking Yahweh's law is the very definition of sin. May Yahweh lead us into the the truth and into His Kingdom by His wonderful Spirit which is the word of Yahweh. (John 6:63)
One final quote:
Romans 8:6-7 For to be carnally minded is death, but to be spiritually minded is life and peace. Because the carnal mind is enmity against Yahweh; for it is not subject to the Law of Yahweh, nor indeed can be.
So now lets look at your verses that. You think Paul contradicted himself. In order to see what Paul is saying here, we need to put a few more verse in front of us for context. Your verse is 56, for a reminder.
1 Corinthians 15;47**The first man is of the earth, earthy: the second man is Yahushua from heaven.
*48**As is the earthy, such are they also that are earthy: and as is the heavenly, such are they also that are heavenly.
(Adam was man, we are like him frail, human. But Yahushua was different, more)
*49**And as we have borne the image of the earthy, we shall also bear the image of the heavenly.
(When we are reborn into our glorified bodies, we will cease being of the adam type and become of the Yahushua type)
*50**Now this I say, brethren, that flesh and blood cannot inherit the kingdom of*יהוה; neither doth corruption inherit incorruption.
(We cannot enter His kingdom less we be reborn into those glorified bodies)
*51**Behold, I shew you a mystery; We shall not all sleep, but we shall all be changed,
(The dead and the living both, at the same time will be reborn together into glorified bodies fitting his kingdom)
*52**In a moment, in the twinkling of an eye, at the last trump: for the trumpet shall sound, and the dead shall be raised incorruptible, and we shall be changed.
(At the second coming [last trump] the rebirth happens for both the living and the dead ....judgement day see 2 Tim 4:1 I charge thee therefore before*יהוה, and the Master Yahushua the Messiah, who shall judge the quick and the dead at his appearing and his kingdom
*53**For this corruptible must put on incorruption, and this mortal must put on immortality.
(We must be made perfect...fitting for the kingdom...fitting for the indwelling spirit. Jer 31. Heb 10)
*54**So when this corruptible shall have put on incorruption, and this mortal shall have put on immortality, then shall be brought to pass the saying that is written, Death is swallowed up in victory.
(Death is swallowed up in victory. This is from Isaiah 28:5. Remember the wages of sin is death. So victory over sin is removal of death. No sin no death. Sin is violation of the law. At this rebirth ito our glorified bodies the law is written into us and we no longer need to study the law because we will just know it. And just follow it. jer 31 heb 10)
*55**O death, where is thy sting? O grave, where is thy victory?
(And this from Hosea 13:14 “From the power of She’ol I ransom them, from death I redeem them. Where is your plague, O Death? Where is your destruction, O She’ol? Repentance is hidden from My eyes. - Lawlessness ends therefore no more death. We have been redeemed and no longer sin. Repentance also therefore is no longer needed.
*56**The sting of death is sin; and the strength of sin is the law.
(Death is the wage of sin...what lawlessness Leads to. The accusation comes from the law. No law no sin. The severity of your sin is measured by the law)
*57**But thanks be to*יהוה, which giveth us the victory through our Master Yahushua the Messiah
Ok... So maybe Peter was right. I cant believe you tried to pull that one off! (Insert eye roll here)
As far as Titus 2:11-12. Well we have to include at least verse 10 for a little context.**
10**Not purloining, but shewing all good fidelity; that they may adorn the doctrine of Elohim our Saviour in all things.
(Here is the changeover verse. Most preceding. Verses were warning over various sins. Then he tells us to follow Messiahs teachings -including go forth and sin No more and Matthew 5s exhortation for the law and making it more stringent. I can see why you didn't include it)
11For the Grace of*יהוה*that bringeth salvation hath appeared to all men,
(So Paul just said follow bible teaching BECAUSE of GRACE. And here he was talking about the OLD TESTAMENT. You know TORAH, because the New Testament had yet to be compiled
*12**Teaching us that, denying wickedness and worldly lusts, we should live soberly, righteously, and reverently, in the present age;
(go over to romans where he says he would not know lust without the law. There is more here too if you need to be shown it.)
Ok? thank you? Your arguing my side again..
And what does Paul teach that Messiah taught?
Well just like I have been saying.
