Replacement/Supersessionism Theology,Why it Matters

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DP

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Sep 27, 2015
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By the way please cite all mentions of 'the day of the Lord' in rev 19, 20 and zech14 and Acts 1. I can't find ANY LOL
You already know that's the actual phrase meaning written there, even though it is a translation. Trying to argue that point while disregarding the type of events and timeframe of those events is an act of rebellion against God's Word.
 

DP

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Sep 27, 2015
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the day of the Lord, is the last year leading to His return


For it is the day of the Lord's vengeance,
and the year of recompences for the controversy of Zion.
Or "day". And the events will occur at an instant according Isaiah and Apostle Paul.
 
Sep 4, 2012
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So Antiochus IV did this?

Zech 14:7-9
7 But it shall be one day which shall be known to the LORD, not day, nor night: but it shall come to pass, that at evening time it shall be light.
8 And it shall be in that day, that living waters shall go out from Jerusalem; half of them toward the former sea, and half of them toward the hinder sea: in summer and in winter shall it be.
9 And the LORD shall be king over all the earth: in that day shall there be one LORD, and His name one.
KJV

Of course the "day of the LORD" is written there, and "LORD" is Yehovah, and same as Isaiah 2:12, Isaiah 13:6, Joel 2:31; Joel 3:14; and Malachi 4:5, not to mention Acts 2, 1 Thess.5, and 2 Pet.3:10.

So does your reasoning change any of those events given to occur on that day? Of course not, and by the events is also... how to know the time frame.

Neither Antiochus IV nor Roman Titus fulfilled that. Not only are ignorant of Who that Zech.14 Scripture is about, you are also ignorant of how that could NEVER apply to what Antiochus IV or Titus did in Jerusalem, because neither of those became The LORD!
You are the victim of some really bad teaching that told you every time you read "the day of the lord" in the bible, it means the last day of judgment when the lord returns. GOD help you to get untangled from that lie.

FWIW, I just looked at every instance "the day of the lord" appears in the writings of the prophets in the King James bible (your welcome), and I found that the phrase "the day of the lord" does not occur in those verses in the Hebrew. Your whole eschatology is built upon a bad translation of the Hebrew.
 

Cassian

Senior Member
Oct 12, 2013
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One doesn't have to be a top Bible scholar to discover the 1st/2nd century Church fathers believed in pre-millennial return of Jesus Christ.
actually, they were post-mill. The period they referred to occurred AFTER the second coming of Christ. Pre-,mill is before the Second Coming of Christ.
Never denied it. I pointed it out long time ago, but no one has yet shown any evidence that the Church held this view ever or any related to it. As I pointed out also, the Church would not have condemned it if it was actually teaching of the Church.
 

valiant

Senior Member
Mar 22, 2015
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You already know that's the actual phrase meaning written there, even though it is a translation. Trying to argue that point while disregarding the type of events and timeframe of those events is an act of rebellion against God's Word.
As I have said elsewhere you are clearly deranged.
 

valiant

Senior Member
Mar 22, 2015
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You're obviously the one trying to pull one's leg here. There is a direct correlation flow, because when these following events are over, notice what Rev.19:20 reveals...

Rev 19:15-21
15 And out of His mouth goeth a sharp sword, that with it He should smite the nations: and He shall rule them with a rod of iron: and He treadeth the winepress of the fierceness and wrath of Almighty God.
16 And He hath on His vesture and on His thigh a name written, KING OF KINGS, AND LORD OF LORDS.
17 And I saw an angel standing in the sun; and he cried with a loud voice, saying to all the fowls that fly in the midst of heaven, Come and gather yourselves together unto the supper of the great God;
18 That ye may eat the flesh of kings, and the flesh of captains, and the flesh of mighty men, and the flesh of horses, and of them that sit on them, and the flesh of all men, both free and bond, both small and great.
19 And I saw the beast, and the kings of the earth, and their armies, gathered together to make war against him that sat on the horse, and against his army.
20 And the beast was taken, and with him the false prophet that wrought miracles before him, with which he deceived them that had received the mark of the beast, and them that worshipped his image. These both were cast alive into a lake of fire burning with brimstone.
21 And the remnant were slain with the sword of Him that sat upon the horse, which sword proceeded out of His mouth: and all the fowls were filled with their flesh.
KJV


That is the same group of events to occur on the 7th Vial per Rev.16 and involves the final battle Armageddon. Within the 6th Vial timing, Jesus warns His Church on earth that He comes "as a thief", which correlates to the timing Apostles Paul and Peter proclaimed in conjunction with the "day of the Lord" (1 Thess.5, 2 Pet.3:10). That included the "sudden destruction" Paul taught there, and the time of God's consuming fire that Peter taught there.

That event of destruction upon the wicked also is correlated in the Ezekiel 39 chapter, which in Ezekiel 40 begins events involving the Ezekiel temple in Jerusalem. The FLOW from the end of Rev.19 into Rev.20 is doing the same.

Per Rev.19:20, the beast and false prophet are destroyed, the dragon (Satan) is not.

Then at the first of Rev.20 we are shown why the dragon is not yet destroyed...

Rev 20:1-4
20:1 And I saw an angel come down from heaven, having the key of the bottomless pit and a great chain in his hand.
2 And he laid hold on the dragon, that old serpent, which is the Devil, and Satan, and bound him a thousand years,
3 And cast him into the bottomless pit, and shut him up, and set a seal upon him, that he should deceive the nations no more, till the thousand years should be fulfilled: and after that he must be loosed a little season.
4 And I saw thrones, and they sat upon them, and judgment was given unto them: and I saw the souls of them that were beheaded for the witness of Jesus, and for the word of God, and which had not worshipped the beast, neither his image, neither had received his mark upon their foreheads, or in their hands; and they lived and reigned with Christ a thousand years.
KJV


It is THOSE events that must correlate with the idea of Christ's servants reigning with Him.

It is obvious those events have NEVER happened to this day.


So pull my other leg, and it plays Jingle-Bells, because you are not LOL at me; you are laughing at God's Word.
you really do have queer ideas of what fits with what.

Hasn't it struck you that when God was putting beings in the Lake of Fire He would do it all at the same time concurrently?
 

DP

Banned
Sep 27, 2015
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You are the victim of some really bad teaching that told you every time you read "the day of the lord" in the bible, it means the last day of judgment when the lord returns. GOD help you to get untangled from that lie.

FWIW, I just looked at every instance "the day of the lord" appears in the writings of the prophets in the King James bible (your welcome), and I found that the phrase "the day of the lord" does not occur in those verses in the Hebrew. Your whole eschatology is built upon a bad translation of the Hebrew.
Show me where that KJV phrase "day of the Lord" does NOT point to the events on the last day of this world. You cannot simply disprove this by saying the phrase in the manuscripts is written different. You have to mark... the events given with it.
 

DP

Banned
Sep 27, 2015
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actually, they were post-mill. The period they referred to occurred AFTER the second coming of Christ. Pre-,mill is before the Second Coming of Christ.
Never denied it. I pointed it out long time ago, but no one has yet shown any evidence that the Church held this view ever or any related to it. As I pointed out also, the Church would not have condemned it if it was actually teaching of the Church.
Nah, it's already been proven the early 1st/2nd century Church fathers held to a pre-mill coming of Christ and a thousand years reign thereafter.
 

DP

Banned
Sep 27, 2015
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you really do have queer ideas of what fits with what.

Hasn't it struck you that when God was putting beings in the Lake of Fire He would do it all at the same time concurrently?
Firstly, none have gone into the "lake of fire" just yet.

Secondly, you're onto something about the lake of fire case at the end of Rev.19, but I doubt you'll figure out, and I'm not going to share it with you because of your rebellion against The Scriptures.
 

Cassian

Senior Member
Oct 12, 2013
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Nah, it's already been proven the early 1st/2nd century Church fathers held to a pre-mill coming of Christ and a thousand years reign thereafter.
The point is that the view then and all subsequent ones were never the teaching of the Church. False teachings have been a part of the Church from the very beginning, even mentioned specifically in scripture.

I notice you have not stated any historical record that the Church ever held the view.
 
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Hoffco

Guest
It has to come to our minds, that God is the one author of the whole Bible; Therefore there can NOT be any contradictions in the whole Bible. All the Bible must be correlated together as a whole. The new Bible books must interpret the old books. The last book, Revelation of Jesus Christ, beautifully pulls all the prophesies together. Unfortunately, not many persons follow the outline in Rev. 1:19. Love to all. Hoffco
 

DP

Banned
Sep 27, 2015
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The point is that the view then and all subsequent ones were never the teaching of the Church. False teachings have been a part of the Church from the very beginning, even mentioned specifically in scripture.

I notice you have not stated any historical record that the Church ever held the view.
That's funny, because in those later Church father's writings, they proclaim the early father's belief in Christ's thousand years reign after His second coming was the majority held view by those directly associated with Apostle John.

What actually happened per that evidence in their writings is the opposite of what you say. The 1st/2nd century Church fathers had the pre-mill doctrine prior to later ideas like amillennialism creeping in. One of the major enemies the 1st/2nd century Church fathers rebuked and pronounced as heresy were the Gnostics that tried to mix their Neo-Platonist ideas in with NT Christian doctrine. So early on the corruptors began creeping into the Church by the 3rd and 4th centuries and changing what the majority of 1st/2nd century Church fathers held to.
 

Cassian

Senior Member
Oct 12, 2013
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DP,

What actually happened per that evidence in their writings is the opposite of what you say. The 1st/2nd century Church fathers had the pre-mill doctrine prior to later ideas like amillennialism creeping in. One of the major enemies the 1st/2nd century Church fathers rebuked and pronounced as heresy were the Gnostics that tried to mix their Neo-Platonist ideas in with NT Christian doctrine. So early on the corruptors began creeping into the Church by the 3rd and 4th centuries and changing what the majority of 1st/2nd century Church fathers held to.
You can try to rationalize it to make it say what you want them to say but the historical fact is that the Church never held it as a belief from the beginning.

Corrupters consistantly tried to change the Gospel but were never successful. Man has tried valiantly to change it but the Gospel has remained unified and unchanged from the beginning. If it had not you might as well be a Mormon or Muslin since the Holy Spirit would have failed in His mission to preserve the Gospel unchanged as He promised as well as the Church over which Christ rules.

God's Revelation was not given to individual men or that individual men have authority over His Revelation as you practice. Which is why you have no authority but your own intellectual ability to determine what the Book means that was never written for individual man. God's Revelation was given to the Church, the Apostles as the foundation, and thus the Church, because Christ is its Head and the Holy Spirit enlivens that Body is the source of that Truth, the guardian of that Truth, not individual men.

One would need to assume that the Holy Spirit got it wrong and then corrected Himself by having the teaching declared heretical thus changing His mind. The Holy Spirit does not work as sola scripturist proclaim and the consequence is such a vast confusion, chaos and division that the Bible becomes nothing more than a source of ideas from which man can devise his own sectarian religion.

Why would you even attempt to rationalize the modern view with a few Church Fathers that is not even close to anything being espoused today. The fact that it is so different, and yet not a consensus can hardly be thought of as part of God's unchanging Revelation that was given once. Jude 3, as well as the fact that the Holy Spirit does not give revelation to individual men in the Messianic era. He gave it once, complete, and has guarded it ever since by His authority not individual men.

If you can actually show that the Church ceased to exist and the Revelation corrupted, then Satan has succeeded and the Holy Spirit failed. But history has manifested clearly that neither is true. Outside of the authority of Christ and the Holy Spirit working in and through His Body, man has become the supreme authority over a Book. Man's authority has run amuck and virtually made the Bible null and void because it has been smashed by the thousands of personal interpretations. You cannot tell Truth from fiction. If a man disagrees with another, just set up a whole new sectarian religion according to his own dictates. Personal opinion passes as Truth and the consequence is all becomes tolerable and viable as Truth since the actual Truth cannot be determined. The contrast between the work of the Holy Spirit and that of man is stark as history is the testament to both authorities.
 

DP

Banned
Sep 27, 2015
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DP,


You can try to rationalize it to make it say what you want them to say but the historical fact is that the Church never held it as a belief from the beginning.
That's actually what happened, whether you care to believe it or not. The word 'premillennialism' itself wasn't coined until the 19th century, and that's what you're confused on, because of heeding men's seminary traditions.

Furthermore, in the early Church father's writings that the Antichrist would come first to persecute the Church, they understood Jesus would come to destroy that false one and take reign with His saints, which is how God's Word is actually written. So to assume they were not intelligent enough to grasp that order when they revealed it in their writings is how one reveals their own stupidity.
 
H

Hoffco

Guest
The replacement theologians are so destructive to the clear teaching of the new Testament on Jesus 2nd coming. But the book of the Revelation of Jesus Christ pulls it all together beautifully. The Reformers were so blink to eschatology. But, praise God they got most of salvation right ,but a little loop sided. Even on salvation the lost the balance of the whole word. Hoffco.
 
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Hoffco

Guest
The Reformers all destroy the 2nd ch. of Romans. they think it is Hypothetical, where as
God says ,this is the way it is ,folks. God is not partial, If one was to be saved, they must be GOOD. born of God, Heart circucised as the saved Gentile was in 2: 10-13 persons ,obeying God's words, laws of the N.T. of Jesus. As the last verse ,29 says The saved Jew is circumcised in the heart not the flesh, born of God in the O.T. as well as in the N.T.. John Pipper has a great message on the literal reality of good works for salvation in Rom.ch.2. ORDER in sal.: GRACE, FAITH, GOOD WORKS.
 

valiant

Senior Member
Mar 22, 2015
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Show me where that KJV phrase "day of the Lord" does NOT point to the events on the last day of this world. You cannot simply disprove this by saying the phrase in the manuscripts is written different. You have to mark... the events given with it.
A perfect example is Isaiah 13 where the day of the Lord refers to the destruction of Babylon in 6th century BC.
 

valiant

Senior Member
Mar 22, 2015
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The replacement theologians are so destructive to the clear teaching of the new Testament on Jesus 2nd coming. But the book of the Revelation of Jesus Christ pulls it all together beautifully. The Reformers were so blink to eschatology. But, praise God they got most of salvation right ,but a little loop sided. Even on salvation the lost the balance of the whole word. Hoffco.
Good job we've got Hoffco to put us all right LOL
 

valiant

Senior Member
Mar 22, 2015
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That's actually what happened, whether you care to believe it or not. The word 'premillennialism' itself wasn't coined until the 19th century, and that's what you're confused on, because of heeding men's seminary traditions.

Furthermore, in the early Church father's writings that the Antichrist would come first to persecute the Church, they understood Jesus would come to destroy that false one and take reign with His saints, which is how God's Word is actually written. So to assume they were not intelligent enough to grasp that order when they revealed it in their writings is how one reveals their own stupidity.
LOL you clearly have not read what the early church fathers really did say. They were obsessed with a Jewish theory not with an interpretation of Revelation.