That doesn't make any sense. You cannot lose something unless you once had it. In order to lose something you have to possesss it.
It doesn't make any sense for Jesus to say
"Those whom You gave Me I have KEPT", If Judas was given to Jesus by the Father but was
not kept. It also does not make sense for Jesus to say, "
Of those whom You gave Me I have lost NONE" (John 18:9) if Jesus actually
lost one. Elsewhere, Jesus said - John 6:39 "This is the will of Him who sent Me, that of
all that He has given Me I lose nothing, but raise it up on the last day. 40 "For this is the will of My Father, that everyone who beholds the Son and
believes in Him will have eternal life, and I Myself will
raise him up on the last day." This was not the case for Judas.
John 17 talks about losing the son of perdition. John 17:12 actually uses the word "lost."
How could Jesus have lost Judas if all those who were given to Jesus by the Father were
kept? Jesus said He lost
NONE. John 17 talks about the son of perdition
is lost, but Jesus did not lose him because of all that was given to Jesus by the Father He has lost
NONE, not one. How could Jesus lose an unbelieving, unclean devil who would betray Him? (John 6:64-71; 13:10-11).
Psalm 41:9 is Messianic and speaks about Judas betraying Jesus. It says, "Yea, mine own familar friend, in whom I trusted, which did eat bread, hath lifted up his heel against me."
In Psalm 41:9, mine own familiar friend, in whom I trusted, a reference to Ahithophel, one of David's official counselors (2 Samuel 15:12) who defected from the king and joined in Absalom's conspiracy. David's betrayal by a false friend pictures Judas's betrayal of Christ (John 13:18), where this verse is quoted,
omitting the phrase, "mine own familiar friend, in whom I trusted." Do you really believe that Jesus trusted an unbelieving, unclean devil who would betray Him? As Ahithophel had eaten bread with David, so too Judas dipped in the same dish with the Lord. So was Judas a
true friend of Jesus? In Matthew 26:50, Jesus said to Judas, "Friend, why have you come?" Are we to believe that Judas was His
true friend? We should not be surprised that Jesus
does not use the word "philos" (Strong's #5384 - dear, friend, friendly) in Matthew 26:50. That is the word He used for His
true friends (John 11:11; 15:14,15). But here He says,
"hetairos" Strong's #2083 - companion, comrade). Judas was someone who associates himself with Jesus for the purpose of gaining advantage for himself. Someone who acts as a friend but really has a personal agenda, as we saw in John 12:6, where Judas is described as a
thief in which he took for himself what was in the money bag, yet he himself not caring for the poor and also his eventual betrayal of Jesus for thirty pieces of silver.
Besides, if Judas was not saved (When Jesus chose Him), then you have a huge moral issue to resolve. How can the Lord (Being good) choose someone who is a devil or evil to be placed into one of the highest offices in the church to represent His good Kingdom and or to do good things for Him?
You are basing your arguments on your own human reasoning and not on scripture. In John 6:70, Jesus clearly said -
"Did I not choose you, the twelve, and one of you is a devil?" (not later became a devil). In John 13:18, Jesus clearly said -
I know whom I have chosen; but that the Scripture may be fulfilled, 'He who eats bread with Me has lifted up his heel against Me. Judas was temporarily one of the 12 disciples (even though he
was not TRULY His disciple, demonstrated by the fact that he
did not continue - John 8:31). Judas did not stick around to be a leader of the church after Pentecost.
For what fellowship does light have with darkness? Would that not be deceptive on God's part to have Judas (being evil) going to people's houses and doing good things for them as a representaive of God's good Kingdom?
Again, Jesus chose Judas and clearly said
he is a devil. Judas may have looked like the real deal to others, yet Jesus knew his heart. You need to ask the question: Why would Jesus choose Judas if He knew that Judas was going to betray Him? Does that sound like a good representative of God's kingdom? There was a reason. Again, in John 13:18, Jesus clearly said -
I know whom I have chosen; but that the Scripture may be fulfilled, 'He who eats bread with Me has lifted up his heel against Me.
In fact, if Jesus were to have chosen a devil of a man to lead or represent his kingdom, he would have actually broken Scripture by doing so.
Jesus clearly said he chose him and he is a devil (John 6:70). Judas short lived mission was only temporary. He did not go on to lead or represent Christ's kingdom in the church with the remaining 11 disciples.
For 1 Timothy 3:1, 3, 8 essentially says that a bishop (or leader in the church) is not to be given to filthy lucre. This spiritual leader not given to filth lucre (money) is mentioned twice in 1 Timothy 3 in both verses 3 and 8.
In the first place, was the church already established prior to Pentecost with bishop's already in place? In the second place, Judas would have been disqualified to become a bishop with those qualifications listed in 1 Timothy 3:1 ,3, 8. Judas was a thief who
stole money from the money box (John 12:6) and he
betrayed Jesus for thirty pieces of silver (Matthew 27:3).
In John 6:70 Jesus is said that he has chosen the 12. This would imply that Jesus willingly chose someone who was evil (If you believe Judas was unsaved).
Jesus chose Judas for a reason (John 13:18). Judas did not fool Jesus. I have no reason to believe that Judas was saved.
Unbelieving, unclean devil who would betray Him (John 6:64-71; 13:10-11) = NOT saved. You continue to base your arguments on your own human reasoning, but you have not shown me
from the scriptures where it clearly states that Judas was saved.