"She shall be saved through child bearing" (1 Tim 2:15) - meaning of this verse?

[soberxp]

The interpretation I thought made the most sense was that the reference is to Eve-> she was saved in childbearing because the seed of the woman was Jesus... the savior. I don't believe this is referring to NT women.

*** not that NT women aren't saved by her childbearing- they obviously are; I mean they're not saved by their OWN childbearing; but they are obviously being saved by Jesus; provided they are his.

This is a double standard. Why can Eve be allowed but other women not?

 

[studentoftheword]

1 Tim 2:15's "saved" is not aorist. Jude 1:5's is...[/QUOT


LOL --- -----

 

[Aaron56]

I'll have to study this more but one thing I am assured of: it certainly doesn't mean women receive eternal salvation by having babies. I mean, that's rubbish theology propagated by the Roman Catholic cult to improve her political position: have more babies = dominance in the world.

Consider:

"It is the Spirit who gives life; the flesh profits nothing."

And also

"So from now on we regard no one according to the flesh. Although we once regarded Christ in this way, we do so no longer."


One area I'm interested in is the odd phrasing: "Notwithstanding she shall be saved in childbearing, if they continue in faith and charity and holiness with sobriety."

This, I believe, is a clue that we are dealing with Eve as the type and the church as the reality. We know from Paul's account that spiritual children can be "birthed" by male believers:

"I beseech thee for my son Onesimus, whom I have begotten in my bonds..."

"For though ye have ten thousand instructors in Christ, yet have ye not many fathers: for in Christ Jesus I have begotten you through the gospel."

Still, it doesn't quite scratch the itch.

 

[SomeDisciple]

This is a double standard. Why can Eve be allowed but other women not?

I don't see how it's a double standard. Up to the birth of Jesus, mankind had to bear children so that Jesus could eventually be born. Jesus was already born, so the childbearing that was needed to bring forth the promised seed is complete. So in that interpretation, Eve and her descendants that would all be progenitors of Jesus are the ones who were literally "saved through (their) childbearing" (not apart from faith- but in the same way that Noah was "saved through water") it was the method of their (and our) deliverance.

So, I think he is using Eve as an proto-type for women in this instance in order to say something like...

"Eve still had a role to play in God's plan of deliverance for mankind, despite the fact that she was deceived" and like Eve still had a role, women in general have a role to play in God's plan of deliverance today.

Just through observation of people, I can look and see that childbearing has no definite effect on women's attitudes toward God, AND I really don't like how a "church" could potentially use this verse to try and coerce women into marriage and pregnancy... I really don't believe that is what this verse is for, or referring to.

Granted, I have not word-nuked this scripture, maybe I am wrong- but I would suggest that before you make a major decision based on this scripture, to take a deeper dive than just a surface level examination of the text and PRAY. ALOT.

 

[SomeDisciple]

"Saved in childbirth" can mean:

1) Protection in the process of carrying and birthing children
2) Eternal Salvation via the birth of Christ
3) A double-entendre that uses both 1 and 2 at the same time

Interestingly, 2) can line up well with an RCC-type interpretation of Revelation where the woman in the wilderness gives birth to Christ.

What leads you to prefer 2?

Umm, really just that it seems to make sense- I'm not sure that women are guaranteed any protection in childbirth, and even if they were, I don't know how that would fit into the chapter with what Paul is saying.