How do you explain:
--that whenever Paul spoke of US [/the Church WHICH IS HIS BODY] as "temple" (whether corporately or as individuals), he never used the "definite article" ('
the'); and
--that in the
eschatological "
THE temple of God" references (2 occurrences that I can I can think of), the latter one
clearly distinguishes (in the sentence) "
the temple of God"
and "
THEM that worship
THEREIN" - Revelation 11:1 (the persons are set as clearly DISTINCT FROM the structure itself); and
--2Th2:4 "
SITTETH" seems
grammatically to correspond with (the one ["AOD [singular / singular]"] Jesus was referring to "
spoken of by the prophet Daniel," which is the one
in Daniel 12:11, (the one where 12:13 tells us that Daniel will "STAND IN THY LOT at the END OF THE DAYS [the END of the 'days' specifically spoken of IN THAT CONTEXT, vv.6-7,1, i.e. END of far future TRIB yrs (namely the end of the SECOND HALF of those 7 years)]"...
...where v.11 says, "abomination of desolation [
singular/singular]
SET UP [H5414]" (
see also the definitions of these underlined words, noting the part where 2Th2:
4's G2523's "
transitive" definition "
I set, appoint"
matches Dan12:11's "
SET [UP] [
H5414]" (expressed
kind of in the same way [using transitive definition]
that Matthew 23:2 uses the word
G2523 [same word], "[
Amplified Bible] saying: “The scribes and Pharisees
have seated themselves [/have sat down - G2523] in Moses’ chair [of authority as teachers of the Law];" [just showing the
Amplified version as an example]...
meaning, "set, APPOINT"); Compare these with the G2476 "
STANDING" in the holy place, of Matt24:15 "set up, establish, appoint" (strikingly SIMILAR, eh??)