The “adulterous woman” John 8:1-11 story possibly not in the original text.

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Mar 4, 2013
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#21
Interestingly enough, the earliest manuscripts of the Gospel of John do not contain this beloved passage. Indeed, the first manuscript to contain the story is from around 400 C.E. Around 4% of Greek manuscripts that include the passage place it in locations other than John 8:1-8:11; the earliest of these is from around the ninth and tenth centuries C.E. This perplexing manuscript history fuels debates about whether the story was originally in John’s Gospel and, if so, where. The majority of scholars believe a later Christian scribe inserted the passage into John’s Gospel at John 8:1-8:11 and that the alternate locations are due to the effects of later liturgical reading in what is known as the lectionary system. This popular method of reading the Bible broke the text into individual units that were designated for specific days and often rearranged the order of the holy text in order to reflect these reading preferences. The story of the woman caught in adultery was one of several such relocated passages.

Today the lectionaries used in Lutheran and other liturgical churches include a reading from one of the four Gospels, a reading from some other book in the New Testament, generally the Epistles, and a reading from the Old Testament. The Gospel reading is considered the main reading and the other readings are intended to support the preaching on, and explanation of, the content of the Gospel reading. In Lutheran and other liturgical churches, we stand for the reading of the Gospel, in honor of Christ who is often the one speaking in the Gospel reading, or being spoken about directly.

These verses are present in most of the medieval Greek minuscule manuscripts, but they are absent from virtually all early Greek manuscripts that have come down to us, representing great diversity of textual traditions. The most notable exception is the Western uncial D, known for its independence in numerous other places. They are also missing from the earliest forms of the Syriac and Coptic Gospels, and from many Old Latin, Old Georgian and Armenian manuscripts.
 

SoulWeaver

Senior Member
Oct 25, 2014
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#22
In Jeremiah God told him to write on the ground the names of those in Israel that he was sent to warn. I cant remember chapter and verse as it is some time ago that I read it but it is there. Point is people wonder what Jesus wrote. It may have been the names of the accusers. As to whether the story is original I have no idea but it has a good message to those who think they are perfect in Gods eyes.
Oh my God... that really opened it up for me... yes blotted them out of the book :eek: Ground/sand is a very very erasable surface... He wrote the certificate of divorce, that the husband was supposed to give... He divorced the accuser... they were actually the adulterous wife while accusing another of adultery... pointing fingers since Adam... "the woman YOU gave me made me do it"... wow just wow... :eek:

As long as the OP is concerned, I believe that the story is in the Bible because God planned it to be in the Bible and made sure it got there... the Bible is either infallible or there is no Bible. This answer is sufficient to me, and I think it's a key story, too.
 
V

VioletReigns

Guest
#23
Oh my God... that really opened it up for me... yes blotted them out of the book :eek: Ground/sand is a very very erasable surface... He wrote the certificate of divorce, that the husband was supposed to give... He divorced the accuser... they were actually the adulterous wife while accusing another of adultery... pointing fingers since Adam... "the woman YOU gave me made me do it"... wow just wow... :eek:

As long as the OP is concerned, I believe that the story is in the Bible because God planned it to be in the Bible and made sure it got there... the Bible is either infallible or there is no Bible. This answer is sufficient to me, and I think it's a key story, too.
Sister SoulWeaver, wow that's some awesome insight about divorcing the accuser! Hallelujah! I'm going to ponder that one for awhile. \:D/
 

SoulWeaver

Senior Member
Oct 25, 2014
4,889
2,534
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#24
Sister SoulWeaver, wow that's some awesome insight about divorcing the accuser! Hallelujah! I'm going to ponder that one for awhile. \:D/
Yeah God is amazing! I work early tomorrow but I missed Bible study so much, and God just quickened it! I read tanach's post and the Spirit keeps going now...! brought up cancer. The accuser is alike to cancer. Cancer wants to kill the rest of the Body, kill every other member and thrive (puff up...pride :confused:) on it, and that's its only mode of living. Jesus would NOT have it... He would have Life/forgiveness... Jesus cast the cancer out because it offended Him and restored the Body... I'll definitely remember it when I pray for anyone with this disease.
 
T

Theservant

Guest
#25
This is the whole of the matter: at a point in history unknown to us, a PERFECT copy of the Gospel of John did exist, along with the other perfect epistles. The recordings of men, pertaining to Christ, are true in their cores. We know by evidence of the Holy Spirit that the Word of God is true. As a brother, i would urge us to move on from such discussions, reason being that it feeds the antichrist spirit that finds its way here, and it also gives rise to doubtful disputations amongst the young and unlearned believers. Let us instead, focus on the knowledge of Jesus Christ as Love, as Lord and Savior, as redeemer.

In Jesus Name. Amen.
 

Nick01

Senior Member
Jul 15, 2013
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#26
Thank you for your input.
The main point of this thread is if the story of the adulterous woman was not written by John, and was later added to his original writings, who added it? The question remains; what was the agenda, strategy, scheme, motive, reason or the intentions of the group or person that inventing the story, and is it possible to know, if that were the case? It is true that it was added at a later date, for as I have come to know, the first 4 translations of John, written in Greek didn't have the story.
The fact that the text wasn't in the original autograph of John does not necessarily mean it was invented. It is possible, given both Papias the the Didascalia show awareness of the general story, it came from another oral source (perhaps the L source, also behind Luke's unique material).

Perhaps part of the story that has passed down to us is a conflation from another story that is not historical, we don't know. We may never know. The point, however, is that the addition may not necessarily have been an attempt by someone to sneak in text they genuinely thought was erroneous. It may have been that people thought the story was genuine, and thought it should be in there somewhere, even thought it wasn't already (hence why the text occasionally moves around, or is noted with diacritics without actually being inserted.) There need not be any ecclesiastical or political motivation to it.

I don't understand what you mean by 'first 4 translations of John written in Greek'. If it's a translation, it would not be in Greek. Are you just referring to the earliest manuscripts? If so, then yes, you are correct.