Which One Of These King James Bibles Has Perfectly Preserved The Word Of God?
I have many different copies and editions of the King James Version in my study, so I took a look at them to see how they differ. I found Matt. 4:2 especially interesting. Here is a summary of what found. Notice especially the last phrase in that verse.
Mat 4:2 And when hee had fasted forty dayes and forty nights, hee was afterward an hungred. 1611
Mat 4:2 And when he had fasted forty days and forty nights, he was afterward an hungered. 1817
Mat 4:2 And when he had fasted forty days and forty nights, he was afterward a hungered. 1824
Mat 4:2 And when he had fasted forty days and forty nights, he was afterward an hungred. 1867
Mat 4:2 And when he had fasted forty days and forty nights, he was afterward a hungered. 1874
Mat 4:2 And when he had fasted forty days and forty nights, he was afterward an hungred. 1898
Mat 4:2 And when he had fasted forty days and forty nights, he was afterward an hungred. No date, Oxford Bible
Mat 4:2 And when he had fasted forty days and forty nights, he was afterward an hungred. 1917, Scofield Bible (Oxford)
Mat 4:2 And when he had fasted forty days and forty nights, he was afterward an hungred. No date, recent, Oxford Bible
Mat 4:2 And when he had fasted forty days and forty nights, he was afterward an hungred. No date, recent, Cambridge Bible
Mat 4:2 And when he had fasted forty days and forty nights, he was afterward ahungered. 1971, American Bible Society
We find here four different renderings of the last phrase in Matt. 4:2, all them in the KJV:
he was afterward an hungered.
he was afterward a hungered.
he was afterward an hungred.
he was afterward ahungered.
Has the KJV preserved for all eternity God’s Holy Word in English? My grandmother did a better job than this of preserving her strawberries.
But that is not all! How about the readability? What English grammatical form is being rendered here, and precisely what does it mean? Do any of you King James Version readers know the answer to that question? Anglican Bishop (1613-1667) Jeremy Taylor gave us this translation, “he was afterwards an hungry.” And what is the difference between being “an hungered” (etc.) and being “hungry?” Do any of you King James Version readers know the answer to that question?
God preserved Matt. 4:2 in Greek, and the Greek text here is very plain and easy to read. The KJV is sadly confused and obscure.
The NASB, 1995, is very plain and easy to read, “He then became hungry,” an accurate, very readable translation of the Greek wording here where a third person singular active aorist indicative Greek verb is used. The very same third person singular active aorist indicative Greek verb is used in Mark 11:12 and, of course, the NASB translates this identical verb in an identical manner. In the KJV, however, this identical verb in Mark 11:12 is translated differently than it is in Matt. 4:2, using a much less precise translation than that found in the NASB.
Mark 11:12 And on the morrow, when they were come from Bethany, he was hungry. (KJV, all editions)
Anyone, anyone at all, who is familiar with New Testament Greek and the translations of it in the KJV and NASB, 1995, knows for an absolute, incontrovertible fact that the translation of the Greek New Testament found in the NASB, 1995, is VERY much more accurate than the translation of the Greek New Testament found in any edition of KJV. Who would want to drive an old, broken-down Chevy when for the same price he could drive a new Bentley Mulsanne? A country farmer might reply, “My Chevy gets me where I’m goin’.” But that is not always true! It breaks down in Matt. 4:2, Mark 11:12, and thousands of other places in the New Testament alone!
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