Daniel 7:13-14: I saw in the night visions, and, behold, one like the Son of man came with the clouds of heaven, and came to the Ancient of days, and they brought him near before him. And there was given him dominion, and glory, and a kingdom, that all people, nations, and languages, should serve him:his dominion is an everlasting dominion, which shall not pass away, and his kingdom that which shall not be destroyed.
Isaiah 42:8: I am the Lord:that is my name:and my glory will I not give to another,
neither my praise to graven images.
Deuteronomy 10:12: Thou shalt fear the Lord thy God; him shalt thou serve,...
Matthew 4:10: Then saith Jesus unto him, Get thee hence, Satan:for it is written, Thou shalt worship the Lord thy God, and him only shalt thou serve.
Why would God have the Son of Man be served by all nations if the Son of Man is not God?
Jesus referred to himself as the Son of Man. Why is the Lord giving his glory to another if Jesus is not God? Why would God the Father approve of someone who is a sinner? If Jesus is not the Son of Man, how could God be well pleased with a liar?
Matthew 3:16-17: And Jesus, when he was baptized, went up straightway out of the water:and, lo, the heavens were opened unto him, and he saw the Spirit of God descending like a dove, and lighting upon him: And lo a voice from heaven, saying, This is my beloved Son, in whom I am well pleased.
Why would God be well pleased with a sinner?
If you look up the word worshipped, you will see that Jesus accepted worship. And God the Father said he is very pleased with Jesus. Why would God be pleased with Jesus accepting worship if he is not God?