NO, I say the vast MAJORITY of Charismatic tongues are psychological phenomena misunderstood to be what the Apostles did.
I'm just curious here. Are you allowing for the possibility of genuine speaking in tongues today?
There is no way you could possibly have a basis to make an assertion, aside from divine revelation. Do you claim that? Have you even traveled the world to research this? Most Charismatics are not in the US.
I say that only TONGUES where unbelievers hear in their own dialectos (language and dialects so ACCURATE that even the accent is PERFECT) have the potential of being what the Apostles did.
About dialectos, do you have any evidence that 'dialectos' means having a perfect accent? In English, a dialect can be a specific accent. It can also be something else. Cantonese is a 'dialect' of Chinese, but not one specific accent.
Paul was an apostle, too. In the situation Paul addressed, others were not present who understood the tongue as their own language. A supernatural gift of interpretation was necessary for others in the church to be edified. In this context, Paul said he spoke in tongues more than them all.
Other people being present who understand the language is not part of speaking in tongues. That's something additional. That's whose present. That may be who God arranges to be there. There were two things going on in Acts 2. The disciples spoke in tongues, and there were people present who understood.
If the Spirit empowered me to speak in Lituanian, and no one present understood Lithuanian, I'd still be speaking Lithuanian. If the Spirit empowered me to speak Lithuanian and a native speaker was present who understood, I'd still be speaking in Lithuanian.
Paul wrote of a manifestation of the Spirit called 'divers tongues'. He doesn't call it 'tongues which people present understand.'
If someone were to 'speak in tongues' in Lithuanian in an English-speaking church and no one present understood Lithuanian, and someone else interpreted the message through the spiritual gift of interpretation, that still fits with Paul's instructions in I Corinthians 12.
The Corinthians were speaking legitimate languages, even though there were no speakers present, no man understanding them. We know this because Paul wanted the gift to be interpreted to edify others. The interpretation came not through 'the understanding' which we know because Paul said 'no man understandeth him.'
If I understand two languages, I can interpret one into another. That's my experience. I do not have to pray to be able to interpret. I could pray to do a good job just like I could do if preaching a sermon in English. But I do not have to pray to receive the ability to interpret.
But Paul told the one who speaks in tongues in I Corinthians 14:13 to pray that he may interpret. This is a spiritual gift he is to pray to, a spiritual gift/manifestation of the Spirit mentioned in that list in I Corinthians 12.
I say, when someone relinquishes control of his or her vocal chords, the POTENTIAL of a demon seizing control of those vocal chords, is there.
Yet Paul wrote of the one who prays in tongues that his 'understanding is unfruitful.' But he doesn't warn that a demon might be speaking through him. Instead, he says 'thou verily giveth thanks well.' Paul had no problem with the content of this speaking in tongues. His concern was that gifts be used in an orderly way to edify others. In the church, speaking in tongues does not edify others as well as five words with the understanding, unless the tongue is interpreted.
I say the genuine gift of interpretations could EASILY be tested with someone speaking something in a foreign language that YOU personally know the Interpreter does not know; yet NO ONE IS TESTING THE INTERPRETERS.
It is only easily tested the way you want if God makes sure that someone is present who understands. Based on I Corinthians 14, that does not seem to be the norm. Although God could do such a thing. In Acts 2, there were those present who understood.
A classmate of mine in middle school experienced receiving the interpretation to a tongue. Then someone else gave the same interpretation. He didn't know what was going on at first. My college roommate had this experience as well. This is another way of testing tongues. Pentecostals and Charismatics still seem tied to the pulpit-pew format and those that allow tongues and interpretation or prophecy 'from the floor'. Incidentally, two people sometimes receive the same prophecy at the same time. There is also the gift of discernment of spirits.
YES I SAY, GOD'S miracle signs WERE and ARE that much greater than what the NEW AGE, the HINDUS, and other cults are doing, and THAT MUCH GREATER than what the average Charismatic Experiences are doing.
I don't know what 'the average Charismatic Experiences' are. But going from living in darkness to living in the light of the Gospel is greater than any Hindu religious experience.
THUS, the COUNTERFEITS become obvious when you see they lack that miraculous power. You doubt that I got it right, then show me all the RECORDED TONGUES SPEAKERS who have had a REAL EDUCATED LINGUIST, interpreting the real foreign language they were speaking?
Show me the reports of real educated linguists that evaluated speaking in tongues in Acts 2? Did Paul sit down with the scholars in Athens and speak in tongues for them so they could investigate the phenomenon? If you don't have any record of the Holy Spirit performing in this way for scientists in laboratories, does that mean He does not do such things outside of laboratories. The Wind bloweth where it listeth.
HERE is your WARNING that Satan counterfeits the miracles of GOD, WHICH YOU CLAIM IS NOT THERE:
1 Corinthians 12:2-3 (NIV)
[SUP]2 [/SUP] You know that when you were pagans, somehow or other you were influenced and led astray to mute idols.
[SUP]3 [/SUP] Therefore I tell you that no one who is speaking by the Spirit of God says, "Jesus be cursed," and no one can say, "Jesus is Lord," except by the Holy Spirit.
Verses 4 and onward are about 'manifestations of the Spirit', not false demonic manifestations. Paul does not mention fake prophecies, fake tongues, fake healings, or demonic prophecies, tongues, healings in this book. I'm not saying they can't exist. It's just that Paul doesn't mention them. There are, of course, false prophecies mentioned elsewhere. There were prophets of Baal. But Paul doesn't suggest these things were going on in the Corinthian church. If we insist that Paul were referring to specific cases of cursing Christ, which isn't justified by the context, then given the context, it makes sense that this was going on in their pagan, idolatrous experience before Christ.
No one speaking by the Spirit of God curses Christ, as Paul says in verse 3. The verses that follow tell us about 'manifestations of the Spirit'. It is clear He is speaking about the Holy Spirit in this context. He lists prophesying and speaking in tongues as manifestations of the Spirit. So these are genuine gifts he is talking about. He does not address false prophecies or tongues here. And there is no warning in the chapters that follow that Christians need to worry about being overtaken by an evil spirit while being zealous for spiritual gifts.
Paul warns about fellowship with demons in chapter 10, but this is in regard to participating in idolatrous practices, not in regard to Christians exercising spiritual gifts in church. Jesus teaches that the Father gives His children good things.
Matthew 6:7-13 (NIV)
[SUP]7 [/SUP] And when you pray, do not keep on babbling like pagans, for they think they will be heard because of their many words.
[SUP]8 [/SUP] Do not be like them, for your Father knows what you need before you ask him.
[SUP]9 [/SUP] "This, then, is how you should pray: "'Our Father in heaven, hallowed be your name,
[SUP]10 [/SUP] your kingdom come, your will be done on earth as it is in heaven.
[SUP]11 [/SUP] Give us today our daily bread.
[SUP]12 [/SUP] Forgive us our debts, as we also have forgiven our debtors.
[SUP]13 [/SUP] And lead us not into temptation, but deliver us from the evil one.'
I posted a link to a Wikipedia article that presents some of the difficulties with your interpretation of Matthew 6:7. You use a dynamic equivalence translation here where the author translates his interpretation-- an interpretation you agree with-- into the text. The KJV says 'vain repetitions.' Basically, you are taking certain author's 'stab' at what the word might mean, and building doctrine on it. That's eisegesis.
Also, Plutarch, who'd been a priest of Apollo in the first century, argued that the oracle of Delphi's utterances could legitimately be prose as opposed to poetry. Herodotus, many centuries before, had said that it was poetry of a specific complicated meter (something hextameter, I think. I posted it before.) The idea that pagans-- especially the average pagans-- regularly spoke in some kind of gibberish as a part of their religion is rather questionable. There is evidence from Greek literature against this theory.
Jesus did teach us to pray as the so-called 'Lord's prayer' instructs, but he did not say to pray only those words. Jesus Himself prayed other prayers in the Gospels. The apostles gave instructions and examples about praying about other issues as well.
If your mother says 'brush your teeth before you go to bed' that doesn't mean she is forbidding you from washing behind your ears, too. Jesus said 'after this manner, therefore, pray ye.' He is not forbidding all the other types of prayer taught in the scriptures.
2 Timothy 3:8 (NKJV)
[SUP]8 [/SUP] Now as Jannes and Jambres (Paroah's magicians) resisted Moses, so do these also resist the truth: men of corrupt minds, disapproved concerning the faith;
This is warning about those types of men. It is not a warning that the spiritual gifts in I Corinthians 12 are bad.
Exodus 7:9-13 (ESV)
[SUP]9 [/SUP] “When Pharaoh says to you, ‘Prove yourselves by working a miracle,’ then you shall say to Aaron, ‘Take your staff and cast it down before Pharaoh, that it may become a serpent.’”
[SUP]10 [/SUP] So Moses and Aaron went to Pharaoh and did just as the LORD commanded. Aaron cast down his staff before Pharaoh and his servants, and it became a serpent.
[SUP]11 [/SUP] Then Pharaoh summoned the wise men and the sorcerers, and they, the magicians of Egypt, also did the same by their secret arts.
[SUP]12 [/SUP] For each man cast down his staff, and they became serpents. But Aaron’s staff swallowed up their staffs.
[SUP]13 [/SUP] Still Pharaoh’s heart was hardened, and he would not listen to them, as the LORD had said.
Notice there was a miracle from God, and witchcraft here. It's not ALL witchcraft.
Look at the mistake Pharoah made. He rejected the God behind the true miracle. Maybe he said, like the Pharoah in one of the movies, that what Moses did was just a magic trick. He may have counted it as all the same thing, putting the miracles of God into the same category with the demonic stuff or illusions.
And my guess is you will continue NOT TO HEAR, and NOT TO BELIEVE the WARNING HE PUT IN PLAIN SIGHT.
The viewpoint I have been arguing for is consistent with all these scriptures. What about you? Would you have considered all the sticks turning into snakes on that floor in front of Pharoah to have been from the dark arts?