Unable to reconcile the ending of Luke with John

[Nehemiah6]

It just shows your inability to support your position Biblically.

I already did in great detail, and you simply ignored that.

 

[CS1]

I already did in great detail, and you simply ignored that.

I al did was comment on what was said.

 

[MarcoftheTruth]

This might have bothered me before, but it is now for sure. I might be missing something, but I can't seem to reconcile the ending of Luke with the ending of John. At the end of Luke there are women who go to Jesus' tomb then shortly after Jesus appears to two disciples walking and then shortly after that he appears to the eleven and then takes them out and he ascends to heaven. At the ending of John similar events happen (there are differences, but it's similar) but instead after this he appears again to his disciples at the sea of Tiberias. The way Luke reads it makes no logical sense for John to end the way it does. I literally can't reconcile the two with how they read. Also Luke does not read like Jesus appeared to his disciples for 40 days after his resurrection. Does anyone have an explanation for these things, because I've read both endings and I can't make sense of it at all.

John gospel is written by John from Johns witness, Lukes is made up many peoples witness accounts if you look up the temptations by the devil in Matthew and Luke you will also find out they're in different orders and much of the doctrine is worded different but end of the day it all means the same thing and the Holy Spirit has allowed it to be written like that.

 

[LeeLoving]

I hear you. We don't need to go down this vein of thought (sorry, I don't intend to hijack the thread), but I'm curious about your feelings on the passage I mentioned above:

Galatians 3:13 KJV - "Christ hath redeemed us from the curse of the law, being made a curse for us: for it is written, Cursed [is] every one that hangeth on a tree . . ."

The Law of Moses is absolutely not a curse. Do you feel that this passage from the KJV is wrong? To say that about the Law of Moses is extremely strong language. That doesn't make any sense et all. The Apostle Paul described it this way:

Romans 7:12 KJV - "Wherefore the law [is] holy, and the commandment holy, and just, and good."

Hey, 2ndTimothyGroup, I think this could possibly instead refer to the sin that abounds due to knowledge of the law (I'm actually not sure what it refers to). If I'm not mistaken Paul wrote about that, but I might be wrong.