Unconditional love verses from God to us the people

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Rufus

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Actually, studier, throughout scripture, we are reminded that God's love is based on being obedient to him. No such thing as "without condition" aka "unconditional love" from Jehovah/Yahweh the Father is found anywhere in his inspired word, the Bible.
With all due respect, sir, you have that backwards. The impetus for human obedience to God is love. IOW, faithfulness/obedience flows from a person's love for God. This is why God's sovereign work of heart circumcision is a vitally important component to one's salvation; for without divine circumcision, no one would love God.
 

HeIsHere

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I quote from a variety of Bible translations, studier. My quotation of Matthew 5:43-48 at Post 108 (which you insist is proof of God's "unconditional" love) is from the New World Translation. Below are the same verses from the King James Version with the same expressions bolded in red (as was bolded in red at Post 108), showing there are condition/requirements to receiving God's love.

43. You have heard that it was said, ‘You shall love your neighbor and hate your enemy.’ 44. But I say to you, love your enemies, bless those who curse you, do good to those who hate you, and pray for those who spitefully use you and persecute you, 45. that you may be sons of your Father in heaven; for He makes His sun rise on the evil and on the good, and sends rain on the just and on the unjust. 46. For if you love those who love you, what reward have you? Do not even the tax collectors do the same? 47. And if you greet your brethren only, what do you do more than others? Do not even the tax collectors do so? 48. Therefore you shall be perfect, just as your Father in heaven is perfect. "
Did Jesus love everyone He came into contact with or did they have to meet a requirement?
 
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Did Jesus love everyone He came into contact with or did they have to meet a requirement?
Obviously Jesus loved everyone; are you accusing him of being a hypocrite for teaching Matt. 5:44 & 48?!

Everyone has to meet the requirement of repentance = reflecting God's love in order to be forgiven/saved.
 

Cameron143

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Obviously Jesus loved everyone; are you accusing him of being a hypocrite for teaching Matt. 5:44 & 48?!

Everyone has to meet the requirement of repentance = reflecting God's love in order to be forgiven/saved.
One doesn't repent to be saved. This is contrary to grace. One repents because they have been saved.
 

Rufus

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Since the discussion is about our Father's love being conditional and/or unconditional, I've revised your highlighting to show where this Text speaks of His love being unconditional.

The context is love [as our Father loves]. Once again, Matt5:35b explains how God loves (and blesses) [unconditionally] by providing for all of humanity including His enemies.
  • Love your enemies & bless men who curse you
    • So you become like your Heavenly Father who provides for all men
  • Don't just love those who love you
    • Accordingly, you shall be perfect like your Heavenly Father
So, then Jesus contradicted himself? He was confused as to the nature of his own love for mankind and his Father's, as well?

God, providentially and benevolently provides his common grace to all men, including his sworn enemies, in order to preserve life here on earth until all the elect are finally brought into the Kingdom. But what you fail to see is that there is no intimate, personal, filial covenant relationship between God and the entire human race. (After all, all mankind w/o exception, is not even personally KNOWN by God! To be in a "covenant of love" relationship with God is to have God's love poured out in his people's hearts. It is to know God and to be known by Him!

Also, there is no predestination or election taught in Mat 5. Therefore, there is no redemptive covenant (or "covenant of love") in view in this passage. The passage is focusing on the general, non-covenantal benevolence of God towards all.
 

Rufus

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You said "Please quote at least one verse of scripture that indicates God's love is conditional,"

Who is confused? :confused:
I posted four such passages the day before yesterday and you ignored them all by deflecting from the subject of love with salvation verses. So, it is YOU who is confused. You clearly "forgot" all your posts that deflected those four passages and the fact that you refused to address all of them specifically.

And besides, as pointed out previously, (and by other posters), if God loves all w/o exception, then there would be no reason for the atoning work of Christ. Don't you know that love alone covers a multitude of sins (Prov 10:12; 1Pet 4:8) ?
 

Rufus

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Did Jesus love everyone He came into contact with or did they have to meet a requirement?
God's unconditional, unilateral promises in the New Covenant totally satisfies sinners' requirements. After sinners are raised from the dead, are given new hearts, have the Law written unto their new hearts of flesh, and have their hearts circumcised by God, they will respond appropriately to the demands of the Gospel.
 

HeIsHere

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God's unconditional, unilateral promises in the New Covenant totally satisfies sinners' requirements. After sinners are raised from the dead, are given new hearts, have the Law written unto their new hearts of flesh, and have their hearts circumcised by God, they will respond appropriately to the demands of the Gospel.
So Jesus only loved some people while He was here on earth?
 

studier

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So, then Jesus contradicted himself? He was confused as to the nature of his own love for mankind and his Father's, as well?

God, providentially and benevolently provides his common grace to all men, including his sworn enemies, in order to preserve life here on earth until all the elect are finally brought into the Kingdom. But what you fail to see is that there is no intimate, personal, filial covenant relationship between God and the entire human race. (After all, all mankind w/o exception, is not even personally KNOWN by God! To be in a "covenant of love" relationship with God is to have God's love poured out in his people's hearts. It is to know God and to be known by Him!

Also, there is no predestination or election taught in Mat 5. Therefore, there is no redemptive covenant (or "covenant of love") in view in this passage. The passage is focusing on the general, non-covenantal benevolence of God towards all.
Apart from all the theological - IOW manmade - terminology and posited doctrinal assertions, I'm simply addressing one topic and one small section of Scripture re: God's love.

Re: "common grace" I've already touched on that here:
The mandate and comparison for us is to become like our Father and [unconditionally] love our enemies, etc...

There is a lot of refinement to this concept in Scripture, but I see God's unconditional love in these verses for the reasons just stated. This section is commonly referred to as "common grace", but it would seem better to refer to it as "common love".
 
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One doesn't repent to be saved. This is contrary to grace. One repents because they have been saved.
So you think, but I prefer to believe the TOJ & the TOP,
which indicate that repentance/faith is the non-meritorious condition for receiving grace.
 
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I posted four such passages the day before yesterday and you ignored them all by deflecting from the subject of love with salvation verses. So, it is YOU who is confused. You clearly "forgot" all your posts that deflected those four passages and the fact that you refused to address all of them specifically.

And besides, as pointed out previously, (and by other posters), if God loves all w/o exception, then there would be no reason for the atoning work of Christ. Don't you know that love alone covers a multitude of sins (Prov 10:12; 1Pet 4:8) ?
On the contrary, I acknowledged to studier that one of the passages indicated that the Father's love for the Son
was conditional upon the Latter's obedience and that another passage indicated that God's love for sinners was
conditional, but that such understanding contradicts other Scriptures, so harmonization is needed--which I provided.
 

Cameron143

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So you think, but I prefer to believe the TOJ & the TOP,
which indicate that repentance/faith is the non-meritorious condition for receiving grace.
Me too, but it's nonmeritorious because repentance is the result of salvation, and not its cause.
 
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Me too, but it's nonmeritorious because repentance is the result of salvation, and not its cause.
No, it is non-meritorious because because God declares it to be such,
whether it precedes or follows salvation, but actually they are simultaneous.
 

Cameron143

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No, it is non-meritorious because because God declares it to be such,
whether it precedes or follows salvation, but actually they are simultaneous.
They are not simultaneous. Acts 2:37 comes before Acts 2:38. The quickening spoken of in Ephesians 2:1 takes place in Acts 2:37.
 
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That's what Jesus himself taught in Jn 10:17; 14:21; 15:10; 16:27 -- unless of course you think John Calvin wrote those verses.
I just told you that I addressed those passages with studier, so please find it in order that the discussion will move forward,
because I do not play verbal ping-pong (although I enjoy the game of table tennis :^)
 

Rufus

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On the contrary, I acknowledged to studier that one of the passages indicated that the Father's love for the Son
was conditional upon the Latter's obedience and that another passage indicated that God's love for sinners was
conditional, but that such understanding contradicts other Scriptures, so harmonization is needed--which I provided.
Hate to burst your balloon, but contradictions by definition cannot be harmonized. We cannot reconcile something that at once says "A" is true and that "A" is also false at the same time and in the same sense! Clearly, you have betrayed the chaotic, confused, irrational nature of your mind. Who told you that contradictions can be harmonized or reconciled: The father of lies, perhaps?
 

Rufus

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They are not simultaneous. Acts 2:37 comes before Acts 2:38. The quickening spoken of in Ephesians 2:1 takes place in Acts 2:37.
Excellent observation, brother! (y) God had already performed his promised New Covenant heart transplant before the people repented.
 
Oct 19, 2024
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They are not simultaneous. Acts 2:37 comes before Acts 2:38. The quickening spoken of in Ephesians 2:1 takes place in Acts 2:37.
The quickening actually is mentioned in v. 5, and Eph. 2:8 says it is received "through faith",
which = repentance in Acts 2:38.
 

Rufus

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I just told you that I addressed those passages with studier, so please find it in order that the discussion will move forward,
because I do not play verbal ping-pong (although I enjoy the game of table tennis :^)
I perused your delusional gibberish of your non sequitur "proof texts" and you didn't harmonize or reconcile anything. You just think you did.