.
The so-called original sin is commonly believed to be inherited from one's
natural father. Oh? From whence did Eve get it?
She was fully formed and constructed with material taken from Adam's body
prior to his tasting the forbidden fruit so it was too late for him to pass his
mistake on to her by means of heredity.
FAQ: Did Jesus' virgin conception insulate him from the original sin?
REPLY: No.
FAQ: Why not?
REPLY: Because Adam's mistake isn't transmitted by means of heredity.
Note the grammatical tense of the verse below-- it's past tense rather than
either present or future; indicating that Adam's entire posterity was
slammed right then, i.e. we were all made joint principals with him in his
sin the very moment Adam took the first bite-- no delay and no waiting
period.
● Rom 5:12 . .Through one man sin entered into the world, and death
through sin, and so death spread to all men, because all sinned.
FAQ: How then can it be honestly said Jesus was a lamb without spot or
blemish?
REPLY: Jesus was collateral damage, i.e. he committed no sins of his own to
answer for (John 8:29, 2Cor 5:21, Heb 4:15, 1Pet 2:22) In point of fact,
according to 1John 3:9 it was impossible for Jesus to commit sins of his own.
FAQ: Wasn't Adam's mistake a sin unto Hell?
REPLY: No; the primary retribution for Adam tasting the forbidden fruit was
just simply his loss of immortality. He was hit with a few other consequences
too, but mortality was the main one. In other words: had Jesus not been
crucified he would've eventually died of some other cause.
_
The so-called original sin is commonly believed to be inherited from one's
natural father. Oh? From whence did Eve get it?
She was fully formed and constructed with material taken from Adam's body
prior to his tasting the forbidden fruit so it was too late for him to pass his
mistake on to her by means of heredity.
FAQ: Did Jesus' virgin conception insulate him from the original sin?
REPLY: No.
FAQ: Why not?
REPLY: Because Adam's mistake isn't transmitted by means of heredity.
Note the grammatical tense of the verse below-- it's past tense rather than
either present or future; indicating that Adam's entire posterity was
slammed right then, i.e. we were all made joint principals with him in his
sin the very moment Adam took the first bite-- no delay and no waiting
period.
● Rom 5:12 . .Through one man sin entered into the world, and death
through sin, and so death spread to all men, because all sinned.
FAQ: How then can it be honestly said Jesus was a lamb without spot or
blemish?
REPLY: Jesus was collateral damage, i.e. he committed no sins of his own to
answer for (John 8:29, 2Cor 5:21, Heb 4:15, 1Pet 2:22) In point of fact,
according to 1John 3:9 it was impossible for Jesus to commit sins of his own.
FAQ: Wasn't Adam's mistake a sin unto Hell?
REPLY: No; the primary retribution for Adam tasting the forbidden fruit was
just simply his loss of immortality. He was hit with a few other consequences
too, but mortality was the main one. In other words: had Jesus not been
crucified he would've eventually died of some other cause.
_
Christ lays His own life down and takes it up again. No one can take it from Him.
The only reason the other animals die is that God cursed the ground, on Adam's behalf: see Romans 8, and ask why Leviticus prescribed animal sacrifices.
Jesus Christ did not decay.
In Him is no sin therefore in Him is neither any death nor any decay.