Was this meaning of Divorce under the Mosaic Law?

  • Thread starter BlackTigress777
  • Start date
  • Christian Chat is a moderated online Christian community allowing Christians around the world to fellowship with each other in real time chat via webcam, voice, and text, with the Christian Chat app. You can also start or participate in a Bible-based discussion here in the Christian Chat Forums, where members can also share with each other their own videos, pictures, or favorite Christian music.

    If you are a Christian and need encouragement and fellowship, we're here for you! If you are not a Christian but interested in knowing more about Jesus our Lord, you're also welcome! Want to know what the Bible says, and how you can apply it to your life? Join us!

    To make new Christian friends now around the world, click here to join Christian Chat.
B

BlackTigress777

Guest
#1
I was wondering if a law according towards Divorce was only towards the people of the Mosaic Law. People with wives tempted Jesus and asked them if they could simply divorce their wife for Any reason. He goes along to say,

Matthew 5:32 - "But I tell you that anyone who divorces his wife, except for marital unfaithfulness, causes her to become an adulteress, and anyone who marries the divorced woman commits adultery."

If I married someone who I believed I was in love with, and he just decides that he's tired of me and leaves me be, Moves on - Divorces me, I'm Automatically an Adulteress? And if someone who may even be a better husband to me decides to marry me, and has Never been divorced before, he's automatically an Adulterer too?
At first I thought that if I waited until my Husband who "divorced" me found another wife, he commited adultery towards me, therefore I can divorce him spiritually. But according to that statement, I'm pretty much automatically an adultress Regardless of how long I wait.

Then he says something similar to that -
Matthew 19:9 "I tell you that anyone who divorces his wife, except for marital unfaithfulness, and marries another woman commits adultery."

This to me makes more sense in a way that the victim actually isn't automatically an adulterer, and whoever marries the victim isn't an adulterer as well. Still, I'm not sure if the Matthew scripture before counts.

These were towards the people of the Mosaic law. I understand that divorce over stupid reasons is..well..Stupid.. Then again, I still have some questions. Jesus doesn't mention whether or not you can divorce your husband if he begins to physically Abuse you. What if for his own sake, he considers himself "faithful" to be enough for him to be a good husband, and continues to beat you until you become deathly ill? Would I still be an adulterer if I divorce him? Isn't my life on the line? Wouldn't it be better for me to live instead of die because of a faithful, yet Brutal husband?
Also, in more common situations, what if your husband just Doesn't love you anymore? What if he's tried everything to love you the way he should, but he just can't successfully do it anymore? What if he's "faithful" towards you, but argues with you every single moment of the day and you just Cannot take it anymore? What if it causes you to become severely depressed? No matter what you do, he's not satisfied with you? Would it be better to just suffer in tears so often through out the day, then to just divorce him Beacause you're worthless to him?
This is why I believe that Adultery just simply can't be the Only way of divorcing someone without becoming an adulterer yourself - The Lord probably dislikes the way the husband is treating his wife, and probably thinks that under These circumstances that it is better to divorce - even without the husband commiting adultery, than to suffer emotionally and physically. Then again, I'm Not the Lord, and I'm not 100% sure about his opinion (fact).

I also ask this because of Paul the Apostle. He says that we're no longer under Law, but under Grace.

"Do you not know, brothers and sisters—for I am speaking to those who know the law—that the law has authority over someone only as long as that person lives? For example, by law a married woman is bound to her husband as long as he is alive, but if her husband dies, she is released from the law that binds her to him. So then, if she has sexual relations with another man while her husband is still alive, she is called an adulteress. But if her husband dies, she is released from that law and is not an adulteress if she marries another man." - "But now, by dying to what once bound us, we have been released from the law so that we serve in the new way of the Spirit, and not in the old way of the written code."

He actually uses a law relating to marriage in order to prove his point. He also tells us how trying to conform to the law can be destructive in a way.

"But I see another law at work in me, waging war against the law of my mind and making me a prisoner of the law of sin at work within me. What a wretched man I am! Who will rescue me from this body that is subject to death? Thanks be to God, who delivers me through Jesus Christ our Lord!"

Was the meaning of Divorce in the Matthew scripture for those only under the Mosaic Law?
Would I still be considered an adulteress even if my husband divorces me for no reason? How about if I divorce him not because of adultery but because of abuse?

"..in order that the righteous requirement of the law might be fully met in us, who do not live according to the flesh but according to the Spirit."

Wouldn't it better for our spirit to live in a happy and healthy body besides one that's abused mentally an physically?
 
T

TAZorek

Guest
#2
The law of divorce was allowed because of the hardness of the human heart. God did not write that law, Moses did. Matthew 19:8. This scripture is a eye opener that we, all humankind, are sinners and can in no way justify our motives. Grace is a cool necessity.
 
K

kenisyes

Guest
#3
Jewish rabbis will tell you that the "613 commandments" (including the divorce law) obligate Jews only. Scripture makes it clear they do not apply to Gentile Christians. Most were set aside in Acts 15:29, the rest are clarified by Paul's later letters, as you point out. We have the responsibility to live by the Spirit and to fulfill God's intent in passing those laws, but Matt. 16:19 gives us the right to determine how we ought to live. Your post is one step in the Body of Christ deciding what to bind and loose.

My belief is that divorce is a paperwork legal proceeding, and does not follow Scripture. Christians may not leave, but they may be left by spouses who are non-Christians (either by claim or by fact of actions), or by Christian spouses who cannot accept their new developing call to ministry, or they may be forced out by abuse which cannot be reconciled by the Body of Christ. The marriage is then dissolved, no sin occurs on the part of the person who is left or forced out, and that person is free to marry again, subject to getting the paperwork straight in the courts, for the sake of the witness to the world.
 
May 29, 2012
530
1
0
#4
Marriage is spiritual and has nothing to do with how we honor it to the flesh.
To understand this, simply look at the stories of the patriarchs. Abraham, Isaac, Jacob, David, Isaiah, etc...


How would they be viewed today in light of how we see these things now?

Marriage is a union of flesh and spirit. Hence a wife (our spirit however it manifests itself) is bound to her husband (the flesh and however that may be ) for as long as the husband lives.