What became of the NT pattern of two baptisms?

[eternally-gratefull]

The context is found in verse 26, John's answer in 27.

And they came unto John, and said unto him, Rabbi, he that was with thee beyond Jordan, to whom thou barest witness, behold, the same baptizeth, and all men come to him. John answered and said, A man can receive nothing, except it be given him from heaven.John3:26-27


Why would a person from the tribe of Judah perform the ceremony as if he was from the tribe of Levi like John?

John baptised according to the law. Your correct. He would have to be from the tibe of Levi. And he woudl baptise priests only (or if I remember right, gentiles who would want to convert)

But John also said Jesus will baptise people. With the HS and fire.

I think we need to seperate the two.

 

[garee]

John baptised according to the law. Your correct. He would have to be from the tibe of Levi. And he woudl baptise priests only (or if I remember right, gentiles who would want to convert)

But John also said Jesus will baptise people. With the HS and fire.

I think we need to seperate the two.

The water baptism as a ceremonial law required when a new priest had a desire to enter the ministry as a kingdom of priest is separate from the unseen work of the Holy Spirit.. But that would seen to be another subject separate from the John 3 reference.