If you were to ask somebody, "Who is Jesus Christ" they inevitably say "He's the Son of God." This answer is given not only by Christians but non Christians, including those in the cults as well as world religions. Even though the answer is "obvious" but what does it really mean?
Remember that Jesus Christ ask the disciples, (Matthew 16:14-17) "saying, Who do people say that the Son of Man is?" Please notice Jesus makes a point of saying "Son of Man." At vs16, "And Simon Peter answered and said, "Thou art the Christ, the Son of God." Jesus then says at vs17, "Blessed are you Simon Barjona, because flesh and blood did not reveal this to you, but My Father who is in heaven,"
The answer that Peter gave is two-fold? In other words, Peter saying to the one person of Jesus Chriat that He/Jesus is, (1) the Christ/Messiah and (2) the Son of God. This answer will come into play not only at the trial of Jesus but before His trial and even after His crucifixtion/resurrection.
So within the pages of the Old Testament and in the New Testament is a "Jewish" idiom known as the "son of." But first, what is the definition of an "idiom?" The usual way in which the words of a particular language are joined together to express thought. The "son of" idiom DOES inted the meaning of a shared nature between ANY father and his son and thus between THE FATHER and THE SON, The "Son of God" title is entirely consistent with trinitarian doctrine which states explicitly that the Son is of the same NATURE of the Father. I'm cutting to the chase here but I will give examples from the Scriptures of how this works.
At 1 Kings 20:35; 2 Kings 2:3 say, "Sons of the prophets. This refers to men belonging to a prophetic band. Or Sons of the goldsmiths at Nehimiah 3:8 refers to goldsmith. I can give you many more from the Old Testament. Here are some from the New Testament. Sons of disobedience are those charactrerized by disobedience. (Ephesians 2:2). Or how about Barnabas at Acts 4:36 where his name literally means "son of consolation." he was called that because he was a consolin g person. One more, "Son of perdition." Who do you think this is talking about at John 17:12, and at 2 Thessalonians 2:3, means the lost one.
The point being is that this idiom can (1) Show membership in a profession or a guild. (2) Showing participation in a state or condition. Like "Sons of exile." (3) Showing a certain character like "Son of murder" denotes a murderer. And the last one, (4) Possessing a certain nature. The expression "son of man" clearly exhibi8ts the use of the word "son" to show the possession of a ceretain nature as at Numbers 23:19 which can be phraphrased, "God is not like man, who frequently lies; nor does He possess the nature of man, who by reason of his own limitations must ofter change his mind."
I think it's pretty obvious how the "son of" applies to Jesus Christ and in fact Jesus Christ referred to Himself as the "Son of Man" and as the "Son of God." At John 19:7, "The Jews answered him, We have a law, and by that law He ought to die because (or why) HE MADE HIMSELF OUT THE SON OF GOD." So why is that blasphemy worthy of death? At Matthew 26:63 the high priest ask Jesus to swear as to His identity, "But Jesus kept silent, And the high priest said to Him, "I adjure You by the living God, that You tell us "WHETHER" (1) You are the Christ/Messiah and (2) the Son of God." At Luke 22:70 Jesus says, "Yes, I am."
Finally, the Apostle John says at John 20:31 after Thomas makes his declaration that Jesus Christ is his "Lord and God" (John 20:28), "but these have been written that you may believe that Jesus IS THE CHRIST, THE SON OF GOD; and that believing you may have life in His name."
IN GOD THE SON,
bluto
Remember that Jesus Christ ask the disciples, (Matthew 16:14-17) "saying, Who do people say that the Son of Man is?" Please notice Jesus makes a point of saying "Son of Man." At vs16, "And Simon Peter answered and said, "Thou art the Christ, the Son of God." Jesus then says at vs17, "Blessed are you Simon Barjona, because flesh and blood did not reveal this to you, but My Father who is in heaven,"
The answer that Peter gave is two-fold? In other words, Peter saying to the one person of Jesus Chriat that He/Jesus is, (1) the Christ/Messiah and (2) the Son of God. This answer will come into play not only at the trial of Jesus but before His trial and even after His crucifixtion/resurrection.
So within the pages of the Old Testament and in the New Testament is a "Jewish" idiom known as the "son of." But first, what is the definition of an "idiom?" The usual way in which the words of a particular language are joined together to express thought. The "son of" idiom DOES inted the meaning of a shared nature between ANY father and his son and thus between THE FATHER and THE SON, The "Son of God" title is entirely consistent with trinitarian doctrine which states explicitly that the Son is of the same NATURE of the Father. I'm cutting to the chase here but I will give examples from the Scriptures of how this works.
At 1 Kings 20:35; 2 Kings 2:3 say, "Sons of the prophets. This refers to men belonging to a prophetic band. Or Sons of the goldsmiths at Nehimiah 3:8 refers to goldsmith. I can give you many more from the Old Testament. Here are some from the New Testament. Sons of disobedience are those charactrerized by disobedience. (Ephesians 2:2). Or how about Barnabas at Acts 4:36 where his name literally means "son of consolation." he was called that because he was a consolin g person. One more, "Son of perdition." Who do you think this is talking about at John 17:12, and at 2 Thessalonians 2:3, means the lost one.
The point being is that this idiom can (1) Show membership in a profession or a guild. (2) Showing participation in a state or condition. Like "Sons of exile." (3) Showing a certain character like "Son of murder" denotes a murderer. And the last one, (4) Possessing a certain nature. The expression "son of man" clearly exhibi8ts the use of the word "son" to show the possession of a ceretain nature as at Numbers 23:19 which can be phraphrased, "God is not like man, who frequently lies; nor does He possess the nature of man, who by reason of his own limitations must ofter change his mind."
I think it's pretty obvious how the "son of" applies to Jesus Christ and in fact Jesus Christ referred to Himself as the "Son of Man" and as the "Son of God." At John 19:7, "The Jews answered him, We have a law, and by that law He ought to die because (or why) HE MADE HIMSELF OUT THE SON OF GOD." So why is that blasphemy worthy of death? At Matthew 26:63 the high priest ask Jesus to swear as to His identity, "But Jesus kept silent, And the high priest said to Him, "I adjure You by the living God, that You tell us "WHETHER" (1) You are the Christ/Messiah and (2) the Son of God." At Luke 22:70 Jesus says, "Yes, I am."
Finally, the Apostle John says at John 20:31 after Thomas makes his declaration that Jesus Christ is his "Lord and God" (John 20:28), "but these have been written that you may believe that Jesus IS THE CHRIST, THE SON OF GOD; and that believing you may have life in His name."
IN GOD THE SON,
bluto
