What's this taste like?

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U

UnderGrace

Guest
#21
To me that is like saying I can't know that Jesus died on the cross for my sins.

Thankfully, I do know that He did, and was born again when I believed that He did, so I know that I am saved. :D

I you have had a John 3:15 experience there can be no doubt.

I was blind and then I could see



Yet we have a thread on here by a person claiming we can't know we are saved.
 

oldhermit

Senior Member
Jul 28, 2012
9,144
614
113
70
Alabama
#22



A. The prior state of those under discussion is that they had:

1. Been enlightened.

2. Had tasted the heavenly gift. (The word for tasted is γευσαμένους (geusamenous) which means to experience. This is the same word that is used in 2:9 where it speaks of Jesus having "tasted" death for everyone. This is not a mere limited sampling, this is an embracing of the full experience.

3. Been made partakers of the Holy Spirit. These had received the indwelling of the Holy Spirit who serves as the Christian's seal of divine ownership.

4. Tasted the good word of God. Again the same word as in verse 4, γευσαμένους.


B. Present state - They have "fallen away." From what then had they fallen?


1. An enlightened state.

2. The experience of the heavenly gift.

3. The partaking or sharing of the Holy Spirit.

4. The good word of God.

5. They had crucified Christ all over again. Like those of 10:26-31, these had "trampled under foot the Son of God and regarded as unclean the blood of the covenant by which he WAS sanctified" (passed tense). In other words these has come to regard the blood that had once sanctified them as nothing more than the proverbial hog slaughtered on the altar.

C. The impossible dilemma - It is now impossible to renew them again to repentance. Why? Because they have fallen away from the very thing that brought them to repentance in the first place which was the word of God. It is now impossible to restore them to repentance. One cannot be RE-newed AGAIN to a state they have never occupied. Thus, having once been saved and then having fallen away, they cannot be brought back because they will no longer repent. This is of course representing the extreme case.

D. Their fate.
Like the ground that yields thistles and thorns, they are cursed and they end up being burned. Just like those of 10:26-31, whose fate is to fall into the hands of a vengeful God who says, "I will repay." The parabolic illustration come out of Matthew 13:20-21, Mark 4:16-17, and Luke 8:13. They had become worthless to the purposes of God and God discarded them.


1. The writer is not saying that these claimed to have tasted, but presents a simple statement of fact - "They had tasted." Having once shared in the fellowship of Christ these had later abandoned Christ and returned to the law. These had previously left the law in response to the gospel. Now, they are rejecting the cross and going back to the law. This is the foundation they were "laying again."

2. This is not a question. There is no "if" in the Greek. It simply says, παραπεσόντας (parapesontas) - literally "having fallen away". This is a statement of fact based on actual cases, not a what if scenario. This is an aorist, passive, accusative verb. They had fallen away at some time in the past and that condition continues. They are still fallen away. This is the force of the aorist accusative case. At some point in the past they had fallen away - punctiliar action irrespecrtive of the amount of time involved, and they remain fallen away. Their condition has not changed.

3. Under the law, sin was not forgiven based on those sacrifices, but based of what those sacrifices represented - the cross. Leviticus chapters 4 and 5 show us that sin was indeed forgiven under the law but, it was not by the law. Even David understood this. "How blessed is the man whose transgression is forgiven, whose sins are covered...to whom the Lord does not impute iniquity," Psalms 32:1-2. He also knew those sacrifices were not the avenue through which forgiveness came. "Thou dost not delight in sacrifice or I would bring it." Psalms 51:1-2.

4. The inability to renew again is not linked to a supposition of "IF" they were to fall away. The impossibility is linked to the fact that after having been saved they had rejected the cross, not the old sacrifices, and in so doing had shamed Christ openly and defiantly.

5. The writer does not say they could not be saved again. He says that cannot be brought back to repentance again. This certainly renders them unable to remain saved since there is no longer repentance. These had once been in a saved relationship. Now that relationship has been severed; not by Christ but by them.

6. He is not comparing the crucifying of Christ again to the repetitious offering of O.T. sacrifice. Those who had rejected and fallen away were considering Christ worthy of the crucifixion. They were rejecting him and his sacrifice. Like those of 10:29, they were considering the blood of Christ "BY WHICH THEY HAD BEEN SANCTIFIED" an unclean thing, and had insulted the Spirit of grace.

7. The writer's point is that these had been sanctified - made holy - A state given only to the saved, something that all of the sacrifices of the O.T combined could never do. In verse 29, he even draws a contrast between the one's of whom he is speaking and those who died under the law for rejecting Moses. They rejected the blood after having been cleansed by it and are now worthy of greater punishment than those who were under the Law. Verse 30 shows their fate. The Hebrew writer describes both the prior and latter states of those who had fallen away.


 
U

UnderGrace

Guest
#23
To summarize then you believe that a person can forfeit their salvation?

I also disagree.





A. The prior state of those under discussion is that they had:

1. Been enlightened.

2. Had tasted the heavenly gift. (The word for tasted is γευσαμένους (geusamenous) which means to experience. This is the same word that is used in 2:9 where it speaks of Jesus having "tasted" death for everyone. This is not a mere limited sampling, this is an embracing of the full experience.

3. Been made partakers of the Holy Spirit. These had received the indwelling of the Holy Spirit who serves as the Christian's seal of divine ownership.

4. Tasted the good word of God. Again the same word as in verse 4, γευσαμένους.


B. Present state - They have "fallen away." From what then had they fallen?


1. An enlightened state.

2. The experience of the heavenly gift.

3. The partaking or sharing of the Holy Spirit.

4. The good word of God.

5. They had crucified Christ all over again. Like those of 10:26-31, these had "trampled under foot the Son of God and regarded as unclean the blood of the covenant by which he WAS sanctified" (passed tense). In other words these has come to regard the blood that had once sanctified them as nothing more than the proverbial hog slaughtered on the altar.

C. The impossible dilemma - It is now impossible to renew them again to repentance. Why? Because they have fallen away from the very thing that brought them to repentance in the first place which was the word of God. It is now impossible to restore them to repentance. One cannot be RE-newed AGAIN to a state they have never occupied. Thus, having once been saved and then having fallen away, they cannot be brought back because they will no longer repent. This is of course representing the extreme case.

D. Their fate.
Like the ground that yields thistles and thorns, they are cursed and they end up being burned. Just like those of 10:26-31, whose fate is to fall into the hands of a vengeful God who says, "I will repay." The parabolic illustration come out of Matthew 13:20-21, Mark 4:16-17, and Luke 8:13. They had become worthless to the purposes of God and God discarded them.


1. The writer is not saying that these claimed to have tasted, but presents a simple statement of fact - "They had tasted." Having once shared in the fellowship of Christ these had later abandoned Christ and returned to the law. These had previously left the law in response to the gospel. Now, they are rejecting the cross and going back to the law. This is the foundation they were "laying again."

2. This is not a question. There is no "if" in the Greek. It simply says, παραπεσόντας (parapesontas) - literally "having fallen away". This is a statement of fact based on actual cases, not a what if scenario. This is an aorist, passive, accusative verb. They had fallen away at some time in the past and that condition continues. They are still fallen away. This is the force of the aorist accusative case. At some point in the past they had fallen away - punctiliar action irrespecrtive of the amount of time involved, and they remain fallen away. Their condition has not changed.

3. Under the law, sin was not forgiven based on those sacrifices, but based of what those sacrifices represented - the cross. Leviticus chapters 4 and 5 show us that sin was indeed forgiven under the law but, it was not by the law. Even David understood this. "How blessed is the man whose transgression is forgiven, whose sins are covered...to whom the Lord does not impute iniquity," Psalms 32:1-2. He also knew those sacrifices were not the avenue through which forgiveness came. "Thou dost not delight in sacrifice or I would bring it." Psalms 51:1-2.

4. The inability to renew again is not linked to a supposition of "IF" they were to fall away. The impossibility is linked to the fact that after having been saved they had rejected the cross, not the old sacrifices, and in so doing had shamed Christ openly and defiantly.

5. The writer does not say they could not be saved again. He says that cannot be brought back to repentance again. This certainly renders them unable to remain saved since there is no longer repentance. These had once been in a saved relationship. Now that relationship has been severed; not by Christ but by them.

6. He is not comparing the crucifying of Christ again to the repetitious offering of O.T. sacrifice. Those who had rejected and fallen away were considering Christ worthy of the crucifixion. They were rejecting him and his sacrifice. Like those of 10:29, they were considering the blood of Christ "BY WHICH THEY HAD BEEN SANCTIFIED" an unclean thing, and had insulted the Spirit of grace.

7. The writer's point is that these had been sanctified - made holy - A state given only to the saved, something that all of the sacrifices of the O.T combined could never do. In verse 29, he even draws a contrast between the one's of whom he is speaking and those who died under the law for rejecting Moses. They rejected the blood after having been cleansed by it and are now worthy of greater punishment than those who were under the Law. Verse 30 shows their fate. The Hebrew writer describes both the prior and latter states of those who had fallen away.

 
Aug 27, 2017
521
9
0
#24
I wasn't born foolish, I had some very bad teachers but lucky for me a Jedi Master came to my rescue and said feel the foolishness.
 
Nov 22, 2015
20,436
1,431
0
#25
To summarize then you believe that a person can forfeit their salvation?

I also disagree.
I agree with your dis-agreeing with regards to losing salvation and being sanctified unto the gospel.

The word "sanctified" means "set apart".

All people in the world have been "sanctified" as in "set apart" for the gospel. That is what Hebrews 10:29 means.

Hebrews 10:29 (NASB)
[SUP]29 [/SUP] How much severer punishment do you think he will deserve who has trampled under foot the Son of God, and has regarded as unclean the blood of the covenant by which he was sanctified, and has insulted the Spirit of grace?

Behold the Lamb of God that takes away the sin of the world.


Gold in the Old Covenant was "sanctified" - set apart for use in the temple as well as the priest garments.

If these Jewish people sin wilfully by rejecting Christ's sacrifice for sins they are insulting the Spirit of grace and counting the blood as a common thing by which he has been sanctified ( set apart).


Jesus blood is what cleanses us and the Lamb of God has taken away the sin of the world but people must believe and receive this truth.

So, all people are "sanctified" ( set apart ) for receiving the gospel message of Christ's work on the cross.

1 Timothy 4:10 (NASB)
[SUP]10 [/SUP] For it is for this we labor and strive, because we have fixed our hope on the living God, who is the Savior of all men, especially of believers.


Here is another example of the use of "sanctified as in the setting apart for something."

Unbelievers that are spouses are "sanctified" ( set apart from others ) by the believing spouse.

1 Corinthians 7:14 (NASB)
[SUP]14 [/SUP] For the unbelieving husband is sanctified through his wife, and the unbelieving wife is sanctified through her believing husband; for otherwise your children are unclean, but now they are holy.

All mankind is "set apart or sanctified" for salvation. We need to believe when we hear the gospel message of Christ in order to experience this sanctification that has taken place.

Hebrews 10:9-10 (NASB)
[SUP]9 [/SUP] then He said, "BEHOLD, I HAVE COME TO DO YOUR WILL." He takes away the first in order to establish the second.

[SUP]10 [/SUP] By this will we have been sanctified through the offering of the body of Jesus Christ once for all.

 

Locutus

Senior Member
Feb 10, 2017
5,928
685
113
#26
Heb 6:6 If they shall fall away, to renew them again unto repentance; seeing they crucify to themselves the Son of God afresh, and put him to an open shame.

I'm not so sure this "falling away" is a complete rejection of Christ, but rather a warning against trying to mix the gospel of grace with temple Judaism - John warned them to come out of "her" - the temple and it's worship.

Rev 18:4 And I heard another voice from heaven, saying, Come out of her, my people, that ye be not partakers of her sins, and that ye receive not of her plagues.
 

MarcR

Senior Member
Feb 12, 2015
5,486
183
63
#27
Heb 6:4 For it is impossible for those who were once enlightened, and have tasted of the heavenly gift, and were made partakers of the Holy Ghost,

Heb 6:5 And have tasted the good word of God, and the powers of the world to come,

NASB

Heb 6:4 For in the case of those who have once been enlightened and have tasted of the heavenly gift and have been made partakers of the Holy Spirit,

Heb 6:5 nd have tasted the good word of God and the powers of the age to come,

So what do you think the above means?
I believe that the intent is:

Once a person is fully persuaded of the truth of Jesus claims it is impossible for them to reject that truth; but if it were possible that they reject that truth, there would be no way to return to Salvation.
 

preacher4truth

Senior Member
Dec 28, 2016
9,171
2,718
113
#29
To summarize then you believe that a person can forfeit their salvation?

I also disagree.
Note the author expected better things of those to whom he wrote, after his hypothesis on those who fall away.

Of them, the former, he expected better things of them, this accordingly "things that accompany salvation." This shows the former were not in possession of true conversion, or, salvation. Being set apart here does not necessitate salvation. Many have been set apart under the influences of the Gospel, and have left their unsaved, though they tasted of all the things aforementioned.

He also exhorts these to go on unto maturity and leave the rudimentary behind.