"Why Jesus is God!" Explanations for JW's
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Of course the faith of the US is that all individuals are free to form their own religious beliefs and to free exercise the practice of those beliefs provided they do not infringe upon the liberty an rights of others. I don't have any problems with what a person believes since each person is accountable to their own Creator, so considering and on that day if there be three Gods then I will know that 2 John 9 was true. 
By the 'according to the scriptures' I take it you mean 1 Tim 2:4-5?
By the 'according to the scriptures' I take it you mean 1 Tim 2:4-5?
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Of course the faith of the US is that all individuals are free to form their own religious beliefs and to free exercise the practice of those beliefs provided they do not infringe upon the liberty an rights of others. I don't have any problems with what a person believes since each person is accountable to their own Creator, so considering and on that day if there be three Gods then I will know that 2 John 9 was true.
By the 'according to the scriptures' I take it you mean 1 Tim 2:4-5?
By the 'according to the scriptures' I take it you mean 1 Tim 2:4-5?
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Jesus spoke Aramaic, when I take written in Greek that can not be translated back to Aramaic, then that would Jesus did not say what some Greek writer's wrote, this also applies to Latin and English, in many passages written in English, Greek, Latin can not be translated back to Aramaic. The last 12 passages in the book of Mark were added, the story of woman who committed adultery, in which some wanted to stone was added, they are not in Aramaic text, then when people used, God the Father and Jesus and the Holy Spirit are three persons and yet all three are one person or a trinity, can not be translated back to Aramaic, therefore Jesus taught no such concept in Aramaic, as such a concept is not taught in the old testament or the New testament nor Aramaic text, therefore the trinity concept is another gospel.
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2 John 1:9 whosoever transgresseth and abides not in the doctrine of Christ, has not God. He that abides in the doctrine of Christ, he has both Father and Son. ( both is plural ) Now this may appear that Jesus taught his own doctrine but what did say about this ? John 6:16 My doctrine is not mine but His who sent me. John 12:49 For I have not spoken of myself but the Father which sent me, He gave me a commandment, what I should say and what I should speak. Very clear !
Yes, Jesus spoke Aramaic. In fact, I read an interesting article once about the "puns" of Jesus. Apparently, when the disciples were quoting these puns in Greek, they did not come through. In fact, Jesus tends to look humourless in Greek. So when you translate his words back into Aramaic, you find his jokes, and what a wonderful warm and funny person he was!
BUT, that being said, Jesus also spoke Greek. It was the language of the Roman Empire. When he worked as a carpenter with his father Joseph, the only building projects were being done in Palestine by the Romans, including a city in Galilee, which is never mentioned in the Bible. So Jesus would have had to have learned Greek, just like many other Hebrew boys!
What is my proof for this?
"11 Now Jesus stood before the governor, and the governor asked him, “Are you the King of the Jews?” Jesus said, “You have said so.” 12 But when he was accused by the chief priests and elders, he gave no answer. 13 Then Pilate said to him, “Do you not hear how many things they testify against you?” 14 But he gave him no answer, not even to a single charge, so that the governor was greatly amazed." Matt 27:11-14
Do you see any translator involved in this discussion? If Jesus did not speak Greek, then how did he communicate directly with Pilate?
The point being that not only did Jesus speak Greek, his disciples did too. Some spoke really well, others, not so well. John has a lovely simple kind of Greek, with lots of Hebraic Idioms. I was able to read his letters easily in first year Greek. One passage was a possible question on the final exam, and I read it straight through, and didn't bother studying it anymore. 2 Peter, obviously written by Peter, is terrible Greek. First Peter is very difficult! We just did 1 Peter 1 in Greek, and it was a whole new level of Greek. Why? Because Peter used an amanuensis! He dictated, and the scribe put it into good Greek. Luke, who wrote Luke and Acts has very advanced Greek.
The New Testament was written in Greek for a reason. It was because that was the lingua franca. The common language of the empire. As the Christian faith spread, they were able to communicate the gospel in Greek, and the written letters and gospels as well as the history book of Acts, were able to be understood everywhere!
The "fullness of time" included the fact that Greek was widely spoken, and hence the gospel could be preached to the known world! So Greek is very important in being a factor in the spread of the good news of Jesus Christ.
"But when the fullness of time had come, God sent forth his Son, born of woman, born under the law," Gal. 4:4
Of course, there are many other things that occurred at this time, too. See this link if you are interested.
https://www.gotquestions.org/fullness-of-time.html
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Yes Jesus mist likely spoke all the languages in that area at that time, the question is, everything written in Greek can it be reversed and found in Aramaic ? In many cases yes but in many cases no, as would have the same thing, no matter what language was used, as Greek writings have a lot of addiction, that Jesus never taught in Aramaic, it's a great topic.