I CONSTANTLY ask myself this question - only because it isn't Strictly mentioned in the Bible. However, the objective of only having sex for procreation isn't strictly mentioned in the Bible as well.
There's much more reason to think that sex is Not only for procreation rather than it is. Here's some pointers -
#1. Deuteronomy KJV - "Ye shall not add unto the word which I command you, neither shall ye diminish ought from it, that ye may keep the commandments of the LORD your God which I command you."
NIV -
"Do not add to what I command you and do not subtract from it, but keep the commands of the LORD your God that I give you."
And Proverbs 30:6 -
KJV -
"Add thou not unto his words, lest he reprove thee, and thou be found a liar."
NIV -
"Do not add to his words, or he will rebuke you and prove you a liar."
Automatically, you cannot say that sex is Only for procreation or that it's Only for pleasure or that it's Only for Both. The Bible Never states any of those things and you can not add to his word.
#2: Hebrews 13:4 - "Marriage is honourable in all, and the bed undefiled: but whoremongers and adulterers God will judge."
God will honor those in marriage, but judge those who indulge in sexual sins - such as fornication and adultery (sex for no procreation is Not ever mentioned as a sin).
#3. Leviticus 15:16-18 states (KJV) : "And if any man's seed of copulation go out from him, then he shall wash all his flesh in water, and be unclean until the even. And every garment, and every skin, whereon is the seed of copulation, shall be washed with water, and be unclean until the even. The woman also with whom man shall lie with seed of copulation, they shall both bathe themselves in water, and be unclean until the even."
"The woman also with whom man shall lie with seed of copulation" states that regardless of if the seed impregnates her or not (possibly due to contraception or infertility) that the two will still remain "unclean" according to the Old testament.
#4. The possibility of Childless Widows -
1 Timothy 5:3-4 KJV:
"Honor widows that are widows indeed. Give proper recognition to those widows who are really in need. But if any widow have children or nephews, let them learn first to shew piety at home, and to requite their parents: for that is good and acceptable before God."
NIV:
"Give proper recognition to those widows who are really in need.But if a widow has children or grandchildren, these should learn first of all to put their religion into practice by caring for their own family and so repaying their parents and grandparents, for this is pleasing to God."
If a widow has any children, grandchildren or nephews, they should take care of her.
The "If" is a possibility that the widow lost her children or a child due to death (Common sense, the chances of more than one child dying before she does is very rare, so most likely if that were the case, she has only had one), has not decided to bear children yet or is infertile. Most likely, her child (or children) died as well as her husband or she was waiting at the appropriate time to have children.
Some may claim that they're not children if they're married and / or an adult - However, that doesn't mean that they're no longer Her (as in, the widow's) children. They're still related to her and she gave birth to them - therefore, they are still her "children".
1 Timothy 5:5 states:
"Now she that is a widow indeed, and desolate, trusteth in God, and continueth in supplications and prayers night and day.
"
NIV:
"The widow who is really in need and left all alone puts her hope in God and continues night and day to pray and to ask God for help."
1 - She would not be in need if at least One of her children would still be alive - regardless of if they're actually child aged or not.
2. If she did indeed have children - regardless of if they're actually child aged or not, then she would not be considered "Desolate" or "Truly alone".
Also, common sense provided while reading the bible shows that Very quickly after the agreement of marriage between husband and wife, they consummate in their marriage.
"Finally Jacob said to Laban, 'Give me my wife, for my time of service is up. I want to have marital relations with her.'"
The chances of the couple waiting to have marital relations strictly just to have children are Very low. Not only does marital relations have the possibility of making the wife pregnant, but the main idea of marital relations are how the husband and wife unite.
1 Corinthians 6:16 - "Do you not know that he who unites himself with a prostitute is one with her in body? For it is said, 'The two will become one flesh."
#5. 1 Corinthians 7:1-2 - "Now concerning the things whereof ye wrote unto me: It is good for a man not to touch a woman. Nevertheless, to avoid fornication, let every man have his own wife, and let every woman have her own husband."
To avoid Fornication - let every man have his own wife, and let every woman have her own husband. Not if a couple were to have children or if a couple were actually in love (which is recommended of course..) but to Avoid Fornication, regardless of if they were intending to procreate or not, let every man have his own wife, and let every woman have her own husband.
1 Corinthians 7:5 - "Defraud ye not one the other, except it be with consent for a time, that ye may give yourselves to fasting and prayer; and come together again, that Satan tempt you not for your incontinency."
Still, no strict meaning of procreation is mentioned. Actually, within the whole Corinthians 7 chapter - there's no strict rule for a married couple to have sex only to procreate.
#6. Isaac and Rebekah's situation -
Isaac prayed to the lord on behalf of his wife because she was childless. So the Lord blessed Rebekah with twins, Jacob and Esau. While she was giving birth,
(Genesis 25:22)
"..the children struggled inside her, and she said, 'If it is going to be like this, I’m not so sure I want to be pregnant!'"
The Bible never mentions if God closed her womb up or not, but Isaac and Rebekah Never had anymore kids. The chances of the two no longer having martial relations are very low.
Genesis 26:8 states - "After Isaac had been there a long time, Abimelech king of the Philistines happened to look out a window and observed Isaac caressing his wife Rebekah."
Rebekah did clearly state that she "wasn't so sure" that she wanted to be pregnant anymore, not that she wanted to stop having martial relations with her husband Isaac. I personally doubt that they didn't do anything else other than just caressing each other, especially since Isaac died at 180, 120 years after Jacob and Esau were born.
#7. Song Of Solomon
I'm going to be honest - when reading this, I hardly understand it. :/ However, I know that it involves the love between a couple (who's most likely married). I also know that many of the spices are Not good towards pregnancy. In other words, these spices are pretty much considered an ancient form of birth control -
Spices and Herbs Mentioned in the Song of Solomon:
Aloe (Sandalwood) (
Aloe professional information from Drugs.com)
Calamus (
Calamus professional information from Drugs.com)
Cedarwood (
Cedarwood Oil | Cedarwood Essential Oil)
Myrrh (
Myrrh professional information from Drugs.com)
Saffron (
Saffron professional information from Drugs.com)
Spikenard (
What Is Spikenard Oil? (with picture))
Cinnamon and Frankincense are the only two spices (or herb..if Frankincense is an herb instead of a spice) mentioned in the Song of Solomon that have no adverse effects on pregnancy or make it more difficult for a woman to concieve. Frankincese may Possibly be okay, but most likely it isn't since more websites claim that it harms pregnancy than help it / not effect it at all.
Other spices and herbs mentioned in the Bible are
Onycha (Not known for bad or good when it comes to pregnancy or getting pregnant), Galbanum (Pregnant women are better off not using it, but they can use a limited amount of it), Cypress (considered okay during pregnancy), Hyssop (Not recommended -
Hyssop professional information from Drugs.com), Myrtle (Not recommended to take medically), Cistus (Not recommended)
I personally don't think that the couple in the Song of Solomon were just using those herbs for any other reason, besides the scents. Myrrh is very well known as an emmenagogue and abortifacient.
Also, the Song of Solomon does not mention the meaning of procreation in any way.
Those are Seven pointers that come from the Bible that indicate that sex is Not Only for procreation. Here are more pointers that may be biblically related, but come from an even more common sense point of view.
#1. Levitcus Rules:
Here are many rules when it comes to sexual relations during the Old testament:
Leviticus 18 KJV - And the LORD spake unto Moses, saying, - Bible Gateway
Leviticus 20 KJV - And the LORD spake unto Moses, saying, - Bible Gateway
After the whole Onan situation involving contraception (so that he wouldn't give offspring to his brother), if the meaning of that passage was indeed that contraception was a sin, wouldn't that be stated within the Levitcus rules of sexual relations? After all, if one man - Onan, knew what caused a woman to become pregnant, many other men know this as well.
#2. Dogs?
Here's a scientific point of view (keep in mind, I'm just stating facts - not literally Trying to be graphic)..
When a male and female dog mate, they become locked together. This is called a Tie.
A tie is a natural phenomenon of dog breeding in which the bulbus glandis of the male's penis swells inside the female dog's vagina. The dogs are virtually Locked together for 15-30 minutes, during which time ejaculation has taken place. This is strictly for reproduction / procreation between the two dogs.
So how is this according to dogs, but not for Humans? If sex was Only for procreation towards humans, how come a couple does not go into a Tie phenomenon after the man has ejaculated? How come the couple has the Ability to use a contraception method regardless if they're using a condom or not?
#3 Other animals?
It's known that female Woolly Spider Monkeys from Brazil appear to intentionally consume certain plants that affect fertility.
Foods reduce or enhance fertility: woolly spider monkey - Ask Nature - the Biomimicry Design Portal: biomimetics, architecture, biology, innovation inspired by nature, industrial design
So if sex was only to procreate, why are there plants that contain estrogen that reduce the effectiveness of fertility in existence? If sex was only meant for procreation, how come animals, such as the Woolly Spider Monkey, assume that eating such plants will help lower their fertility rate?
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With all of that stated, I believe that sex is not Only for Procreation, not Only for Pleasure and not Only for both. It depends on the couple, and it is believed that it also depends on their motive in life. Here's a christian website that explains it (however, I honestly don't quite agree with them with it comes to other situations - but this still helps).
What does the Bible say about birth control / contraceptives? Should Christians use birth control?
Is it wrong for a married couple to have sex just for pleasure?