dumbing down of america...

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Mar 21, 2011
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#41
My asking the question, is based on my perception of how you arrivate at conclusions of "WAR CRIMES!!!!WAR CRIMES!!!!WAR CRIMES!!!!WAR CRIMES!!!!WAR CRIMES!!!!WAR CRIMES!!!!"

How do you arrive at this conclusion?
I don't have to arrive at any conclusion. A War Crime is spelled out in US law, and International Law conventions such as the Geneva Convention which the US is a signatory to.

It is a War crime to target civilians and to kill them.

United States Code: Title 18,2441. War crimes | LII / Legal Information Institute

(c) Definition.— As used in this section the term “war crime” means any conduct—
(1) defined as a grave breach in any of the international conventions signed at Geneva 12 August 1949, or any protocol to such convention to which the United States is a party;
(2) prohibited by Article 23, 25, 27, or 28 of the Annex to the Hague Convention IV, Respecting the Laws and Customs of War on Land, signed 18 October 1907;
(3) which constitutes a grave breach of common Article 3 (as defined in subsection (d)) when committed in the context of and in association with an armed conflict not of an international character; or
(4) of a person who, in relation to an armed conflict and contrary to the provisions of the Protocol on Prohibitions or Restrictions on the Use of Mines, Booby-Traps and Other Devices as amended at Geneva on 3 May 1996 (Protocol II as amended on 3 May 1996), when the United States is a party to such Protocol, willfully kills or causes serious injury to civilians.
 
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jimmydiggs

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#42
I don't have to arrive at any conclusion.
Not anymore, because you've already reached your conclusion.



A War Crime is spelled out in US law, and International Law conventions such as the Geneva Convention which the US is a signatory to.

It is a War crime to target civilians and to kill them.

United States Code: Title 18,2441. War crimes | LII / Legal Information Institute
Letting humans define moral oughts and ought-nots?

By this standard, God is a war criminal. Along with the Israelites.

Hosea 13 said:
16 The people of Samaria must bear their guilt,
because they have rebelled against their God.
They will fall by the sword;
their little ones will be dashed to the ground,
their pregnant women ripped open.”
[b]
 
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Grey

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#43
The bible also said love your enemy. And if your trying to apply old testament warfare to modern life your due on some bull sacrifices.. lol
 
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jimmydiggs

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#44
The bible also said love your enemy. And if your trying to apply old testament warfare to modern life your due on some bull sacrifices.. lol
I'm saying there is inconsistancy in our condemnations.


It'll work amongst Christians who don't ask questions, try it on an atheist though. They'llbe more than happy to point out how Christians "ignore the old testament."
 
Mar 21, 2011
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#45
Letting humans define moral oughts and ought-nots?
Okay, you've lost my respect, and pretty much any rational argument you ever intended.

So your reasoning is, the Old Testament portrays a psychopathic angry God that cares little for innocent women, or the lives of little babies in war. Therefore, the United States of America, the Third Reich, Imperialist Japan, Iran, Saddam's Iraq and all others are well within legal rights to slaughter and maim as many innocent civilians as they like?

Using that logic, am I to assume that Since Al Qaeda declared a type of Holy War with America, that the deaths of people in 9/11 was justified and in no way a crime?


By this standard, God is a war criminal.
Yes, if we apply a Literalist belief to the Old Testament. I am not a Literalist though.

If God did do these things, then by the standards we have set, he is guilty of War Crimes.

Along with the Israelites.
Certainly the Ancient and modern Israelists are guilty of many War Crimes, as are pretty much most nations that ever existed, included mine. This is why War Criminals are to be prosecuted and things like Torture are not to be tolerated ever.
 
Feb 24, 2011
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#46
Oh, I'm all for blaming Israel for war crimes and apartheid... But you can't call God a war criminal -.- I'm not all about the literalistic interpretation of the Old Testament to the fullest extent but you can't call God Himself a war criminal. Kinda angry and grouchy but not a criminal -.-, but I really think David_1 is KIND of crazy. And a hippie. And an American-hating communist.


That is all.
 
Mar 21, 2011
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#47
Oh, I'm all for blaming Israel for war crimes and apartheid... But you can't call God a war criminal -.- I'm not all about the literalistic interpretation of the Old Testament to the fullest extent but you can't call God Himself a war criminal. Kinda angry and grouchy but not a criminal -.-, but I really think David_1 is KIND of crazy. And a hippie. And an American-hating communist.


That is all.
If you read my response, I leave it up to you to decide.

I am not a communist.

I am not American hating, I am American criticising. I know you are not used to that, but there you go. Welcome to the world of consequences beyond your borders.
 
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Sooner28

Guest
#48
Not sure why strong criticism of America always leads one to be labeled a communist...sounds like the 1950s to me! I am not going to endorse a conservative or liberal viewpoint here but I will give two examples to show how an American Conservative and American Liberal would both have serious criticisms of America that are not communist in nature. A Conservative could decry the size of the government, with the number of people that rely on the government for survival, high spending, and high taxes. A Liberal could criticize America based on the justice system not doing a great job and recent DNA testing showing many innocent people end up being imprisoned. I think both of these viewpoints have some merit to them but simply offering a strong critique of something about America does not automatically make one a communist, or a socialist, or whatever other kind of label is used.
 
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jimmydiggs

Guest
#49
Okay, you've lost my respect, and pretty much any rational argument you ever intended.
That's okay. I don't seek to be a pleaser of men.



So your reasoning is, the Old Testament portrays a psychopathic angry God that cares little for innocent women, or the lives of little babies in war. Therefore, the United States of America, the Third Reich, Imperialist Japan, Iran, Saddam's Iraq and all others are well within legal rights to slaughter and maim as many innocent civilians as they like?



Let's go back to what I actually said, shall we?

In one of my previous posts, the second one actually... I stated..

JimmyDiggs said:
David, if you ignore everything above, atleast, ppppllllllllleeeeeeeeeeaaaaaaasssssssssseeeeeeeeee e.... don't ignore this part of the post.


I am not taking issue with your conclusion, just what appears to be the way in which you come to your conclusion.
Apparently, my plea was made in vain. I have added emphasis to to make your strawman obvious.


Using that logic, am I to assume that Since Al Qaeda declared a type of Holy War with America, that the deaths of people in 9/11 was justified and in no way a crime?
You sure are great at strawmen...



I never once defended the actions of anyone. Hell, I didn't even defend God's actions.


Yes, if we apply a Literalist belief to the Old Testament. I am not a Literalist though.
Which is why I asked, if you cut out the OT when you buy a bible. I prefer to take the whole counsel of God's word.

I also wonder; do you take Jesus literally, when he said that he did not come to abolish the law, but rather fullfill it?


Ultimately that is a matter of Hermeneutics and Exegesis.

The below chart, is how I would approach the matter.




If God did do these things, then by the standards we have set, he is guilty of War Crimes.
This is the root of the problem. The "we" is subjective. We are trying to define morality, when morality is for God to "define".


I prefer to let God be the "definer". This is called, Objective Morality.


Certainly the Ancient and modern Israelists are guilty of many War Crimes, as are pretty much most nations that ever existed, included mine. This is why War Criminals are to be prosecuted and things like Torture are not to be tolerated ever.
So much for forgiving tresspassers...





My problem, again, is not with your conclusion. It is with how you arrive at this conclusion. I, and the bible, and arguably philosophy, would say that objective morality is dependent upon God. So when I want to condemn something (such as war crimes) as immoral, I require an appeal to an Objective standard.



The point Grey raises would be my next step, to which I would like to refer to you two things. First, an artical from Reasonablefaith.org... and my asking questions of the CC user Credo_Ut_intelligam in an email exchange in relation to the artical.


First, a link to the artical.
Reasonable Faith: Q & A with William Lane Craig #217 - Could God's Moral Commands Be Improved? <--- click


Now, the email. I am going to quote this in text, instead of the usual screencap. I am doing this because of the length of the message. If you request a screencap, I will provide.

Credo's Response said:
JimmyDiggs said:
So why then would the ethical teachings of Christ be superior to the OT law, if Jesus is God in the flesh? This seems slightly inconsistant. Especially given Numbers 23:19, which basically states that God doesn't change. As well as passages like, Malachi 3:6 and James 1:17. This seems to endorse the view that there is some sort of Iron Curtain between the Old Testament and the New Testament. If the NT is morally superior to the OT, then that seems to indicate God changes, and how does that not indicate that God would then be subjective and arbitrary in his moral decrees?
This is an area where we have to be nuanced. It&#8217;s a very big topic that has a lot of facets to it. Let me start with the easy thing, which is the beginning of Craig&#8217;s response (I didn&#8217;t read all of it). He says:
William Lane Craig said:
&#8220;&#8230;God&#8217;s commands can be contingent upon the realities of the human condition relative to the times and places of the recipients of those commands. Real people in the circumstances in which they exist may not be capable of receiving or carrying out God&#8217;s moral ideal for them and so are given commands which may be much less than ideal but nonetheless suited for the reality of their situation.

This is not just a hypothetical possibility. This is what the Bible teaches about God&#8217;s commands. One of the clearest examples of this is Jesus&#8217; teaching concerning the Mosaic law on divorce.&#8221;

In this Craig is perfectly correct and I think this answers your question at one level. It&#8217;s not that God is changing here, but that the situation is changing or the (fuller?) expectation of God is being revealed. I&#8217;ve talked about this exact thing that Craig is talking about on the CC forums before. Laws, all laws in all societies, do not set a roof but a floor so to speak. That is, they do not instantiate the highest ideal but only the minimum of what the society will or should tolerate. For instance, most American states no longer have laws against adultery. This doesn&#8217;t mean these states approves of adultery, but that the states are willing to tolerate it. Likewise, every state allows for divorce, but no state believes that divorce is a good thing: only that the state should tolerate it. Likewise, God&#8217;s laws for Israelite society do not necessarily express the ideal of what God wants for or expects from his people. God&#8217;s law given to Israel is accommodated to and presupposes a fallen, sinful society.


The OT scholar Gordon Wenham explains this best:
Gorden Wenham said:
&#8220;The law sets a minimum standard of behaviour, which if transgressed attracts sanction. It regulates institutions like marriage or slavery, but it does not prescribe ideals of behaviour within marriage. Does the regulation of slavery or bigamy mean that the Old Testament endorses these institutions and regards them as ethically desirable? If the law punished adulterers with death only where the woman involved was married, does that mean affairs by husbands with unattached girls or prostitutes were permissible?... To pose the questions is to suggest their answer. In most societies what the law enforces is not the same as what upright members of that society feel is socially desirable let alone ideal. There is a link between moral ideals and law, but law tends to be a pragmatic compromise between the legislators&#8217; ideals and what can be enforced in practice. The law enforces a minimum standard of behaviour&#8230;. though I may not have stolen my neighbour&#8217;s car or had an affair with his wife, I may be far from being a model citizen. I may have kept every law of the land to the letter yet be an obnoxious person to live with. To put it another way, ethics is much more than keeping the law. Or to put it in biblical terms righteousness involves more than living by the decalogue and the other laws in the Pentateuch. On reflection these points seem self-evident&#8230;. Thus a study of the legal codes within the Bible is unlikely to disclose the ideals of the law-givers, but only the limits of their tolerance: if you do such and such, you will be punished. The laws thus tend to express the limits of socially acceptable behaviour: they do not describe ideal behaviour&#8221; (Story as Torah: Reading Old Testament Narrative Ethically, p. 80).

So, in this sense, can the NT &#8220;improve&#8221; upon the OT ethic? If we are talking about the *civil law* (as distinguished from the moral law) then most Christians today would probably say yes. Personally, I&#8217;m not sure as I haven&#8217;t thought about all of the pros and cons. An obvious example that most people would want to turn to is the issue of slavery. The OT allowed for slavery to exist. Today, slavery is illegal in America. Isn&#8217;t that an improvement? Well the issue is more complex than most people are willing to deal with. For one thing, the slavery that the Bible permitted was not the form of slavery that existed in America. The type of slavery that existed in America was considered &#8220;man stealing&#8221; in the Bible and was actually a capital offense (Exodus 21:16). The Bible allowed for slavery to exist in a sort of indentured servitude way or with prisoners of war. In the indentured servitude manner, a person who became poor or indebted to someone that they could not pay could sell themselves into slavery to pay off the debt.


So is it an improvement for America to not have *this* form of slavery? Once we distinguish it from man-stealing the answer is less obvious I think. Today, if a person cannot pay their debts what happens? For the vast majority of cases, nothing. You can just incur debt and then not pay it. Is that good? No. In fact, it&#8217;s a form of legalized stealing. Wouldn&#8217;t it be better if these persons who incur debt that they can&#8217;t pay off could enter a form of indentured servitude? One might object to the physical punishments that could be given to slaves in the OT times, but wouldn&#8217;t that serve as a deterrent to incurring such debt in the first place? Otherwise, it just becomes a contracted job and the person being contracted may be getting the better end of the deal because it&#8217;s a guaranteed job. I&#8217;m not going to say that it would be an improvement to go back to the biblical allowance of slavery but I&#8217;m also not going to say that I&#8217;m sure it&#8217;s an improvement to discard it, because I haven&#8217;t given the issue a lot of thought.


The questioner says: &#8220;how do we improve our morals if it is an obvious improvement to not follow the bible? I make claim to the old testament where frivolous crimes carry the punishment of death by stoning.&#8221; But in fact the *New Testament* affirms that &#8220;every transgression or disobedience received a just retribution,&#8221; (Heb. 2:2). So it makes no sense to pit the OT against the NT at this point. The questioner is simply assuming that some set of crimes in the OT that received capital punishment were frivolous. But obviously the OT didn&#8217;t view these crimes as frivolous and neither does the NT. Does this mean it would still be just to have the death penalty for crimes like rape, adultery, incorrigibility, etc? Most Christians and non-Christians react against such things, but their reaction is largely a product of their emotional sense that has been shaped by culture than anything else.

But if one does think that we can improve upon these laws it doesn&#8217;t follow that God is changing his moral standard, only that he is holding us more closely to it.


Furthermore, I&#8217;ve been trying to keep clear that I&#8217;m talking about the civil laws given to Israel. Most distinguish between the civil law, the ceremonial law, and the moral law. Everyone agrees that the ceremonial and civil laws were particular instantiations of the moral law for a particular time and place. Most then say that we are no longer in the time and place that made those particular instantiations relevant. Therefore, we are no longer bound to those applications even though we are still bound to the same moral law.


Also, one doesn&#8217;t necessarily need to turn to the NT to find the fuller revelation. Craig gives the example of divorce that was given as part of Israel&#8217;s civil law. But one doesn&#8217;t need to wait till the NT for Jesus to reveal the ideal. One can find it in the OT and in fact this is where Jesus goes to support his claim.
I added bold, italics, and underline to what would be better to argue.

An analogy, and Grey and I can probably more closely relate than you might be able to David. Not that you lack the ability, just that it's probably been awhile since the analogy would fit.

My anology:
Understanding the ethics of the OT vs. the NT/Jesus, is a lot like trying to understand a C vs. an A as a grade for a high school class. You still pass with a C, but it wasn't the best.
 
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