Interesting argument but, still dont make sense. Because unmarried also can means virgins in verse 34, when he talks about the difference between a wife and a virgin, and also says virgins are unmarried.
If he was married and was widowed he would have mentioned it or any children. One cant assume that he was previoulsy married. There was no rule that pharisees had to be married.
If he was married and was widowed he would have mentioned it or any children. One cant assume that he was previoulsy married. There was no rule that pharisees had to be married.
