It is indeed, but some here treat certain holocausts with a religious reverence that in my view should only be reserved for Christ.
I am sorrry that you are pained, but pleased you took time to respond.
Correct. I'm not arguing against Hitler's existence. I am arguing he was not the worst monster that ever lived, and certainly less a monster than most of the Communist monsters of the 20th century, at least so far as the evidence we have indicates.
Correct. But - did Hitler order the extermination of 6 million or more people of any race or religion by gassing, followed by burning, as part of the historic public record? Do we have evidence of this, even off the historic public record, let alone on it? I'm not saying that the evidence doesn't exist, or that it never existed. But do we have it now, or did we ever have it, if it does indeed exist?
How so? My understanding is that the only evidence (if one can call it evidence) that exists of a systematic extermination of 6 million or more people of any particular race or religion by gassing and subsequent burning during World War II, are the testimonies of Nazi officers which were extracted under torture. Other evidences such as gas chambers, eye witness accounts etc. either are the subject of debate after detailed investigation and cross examination, or are inadequate to prove Hitler guilty of the aforementioned crime (possibly lesser crimes, but not the one under consideration). Therefore, if the testimonies of the Nazis are to be used as evidence against Hitler (invalidated in any legitimate court, as all testimony obtained via torture should be), Hitler should surely have the chance to defend himself against such claims? What important fact in the process of justice have I missed, to cause you such pain on this topic?
I think it was more like 20 million deaths in the Holodomor, plus significantly more than 25,000 civilians in the Boer War (victims of the British). So even for these holocausts, if you will, we have a conflict. That's not to say that many people weren't murdered, but it is to say that there is absence of evidence to fully determine the number of victims. For the Stalin-Communist-instigated Ukrainian holocaust - the Holodomor - there is good evidence that the death toll was in multiples of millions. Unfortunately, for the deaths in German concentration camps during World War II, there are only good records of several hundred thousand dying. This is still a terrible statistic, but has any evidence of more than this perishing yet been found? If so, what is it? Also, even if it exists, how does such evidence indicate what religion or nationality the victims were, or doesn't it?