J
I know I'm going to ruffle some feathers, and to be honest my feathers are a little ruffled. I've been a Christian for almost 15 years, and I always took things at face value. I always had a measure of childlike faith. While that was good, it has also left me with little in the way of defense when it comes to talking intellectually (and sometimes logically) about my convictions. I know this topic is brought up just about every other breath, but I bring it up one more time in hopes to see it form a new angle. What is the topic, you ask? Broadly I supposed it would be "sexual immorality", but to be more specific I'd prefer to narrow it down to a not-so-simple question (or two): Is sex before marriage between consenting adults who are both unmarried and not prostituting themselves a sin? Why is it or is it not?
I wonder myself why this has even become a question for me. I've never been one to side with the newest floating opinion. I like tradition and long-standing tradition say it plainly: sex before marriage is a sin. In my own pursuit to strengthen my convictions in this area, I went on a search to find solid BIBLICAL evidence to support my traditional viewpoint. Much to my amazement, the legitimate sources I uncovered almost all said the same thing. The word translated into english as "fornication" in the KJV and "sexual immorality" in the NIV is porneia. In it's original meaning, porneia mentions no correlation to sex between consenting, committed, unmarried adults. In the greek, porneia is "illicit sexual immorality: adultery, fornication, homosexuality, beastiality, incest, sex with a divorced person; metaphorically - the worship of idols." The only verse I can find that is a bit more specific is 1 Cor. 1:7. This is the passage where Paul specifically states that he is giving his opinion regarding men and women marrying in order to avoid porneia. I do see a clearer connection, but it's still a bit muddled for me. Paul doesn't specify the sexual immorality he's seeking to remedy. Perhaps he was only referring to people seeking sexual expression with prostitutes or animals, rather than a spouse. I guess we don't really know the exact situation.
Another argument I saw was taken from Genesis in the account of Adam and Eve. Both there and in the new testament there seems to be a specific order to how things go in God's kingdom. In the leave and cleave passages, the oneness union is always saved for last after those involved have left their parents, and cleaved to their spouse with the approval of their parents.
In my search I've found a lot of what I would consider more psychologically based arguments against premarital sex.
Rather than keep spouting off my ideas, I'd like to hear from you. I wish this to be a non-judgemental argument. Mind you, I am not in a sexual relationship, I am simply searching out my faith. There is no need for judgement, harsh words, or accusations of anyone who chooses to participate. We don't all have to agree, but we all must remember the goal is love.
I wonder myself why this has even become a question for me. I've never been one to side with the newest floating opinion. I like tradition and long-standing tradition say it plainly: sex before marriage is a sin. In my own pursuit to strengthen my convictions in this area, I went on a search to find solid BIBLICAL evidence to support my traditional viewpoint. Much to my amazement, the legitimate sources I uncovered almost all said the same thing. The word translated into english as "fornication" in the KJV and "sexual immorality" in the NIV is porneia. In it's original meaning, porneia mentions no correlation to sex between consenting, committed, unmarried adults. In the greek, porneia is "illicit sexual immorality: adultery, fornication, homosexuality, beastiality, incest, sex with a divorced person; metaphorically - the worship of idols." The only verse I can find that is a bit more specific is 1 Cor. 1:7. This is the passage where Paul specifically states that he is giving his opinion regarding men and women marrying in order to avoid porneia. I do see a clearer connection, but it's still a bit muddled for me. Paul doesn't specify the sexual immorality he's seeking to remedy. Perhaps he was only referring to people seeking sexual expression with prostitutes or animals, rather than a spouse. I guess we don't really know the exact situation.
Another argument I saw was taken from Genesis in the account of Adam and Eve. Both there and in the new testament there seems to be a specific order to how things go in God's kingdom. In the leave and cleave passages, the oneness union is always saved for last after those involved have left their parents, and cleaved to their spouse with the approval of their parents.
In my search I've found a lot of what I would consider more psychologically based arguments against premarital sex.
Rather than keep spouting off my ideas, I'd like to hear from you. I wish this to be a non-judgemental argument. Mind you, I am not in a sexual relationship, I am simply searching out my faith. There is no need for judgement, harsh words, or accusations of anyone who chooses to participate. We don't all have to agree, but we all must remember the goal is love.
