Spirits In Prison

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KAdamW

Banned
Sep 7, 2013
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1Pet. 4:6 For for this cause was the gospel preached also to them that are dead, that they might be judged according to men in the flesh, but live according to God in the spirit.

Tells us that the gospel "was"(past tense) preached to those who "are"(present tense) dead. What meaning does this verse hold?.....Peter did not imply that the gospel was then being preached to the souls of the dead, as some teach. He said the gospel "was preached" to those who "are [now] dead." The preaching was done while they were still alive, and they will be judged on the basis of how they lived "according to men in the flesh," or while they were still alive.

Peter is undoubtedly talking about those who he referenced being preached to eight verses prior,(3:19,20) because he refers to their living again "according to God [as God lives] in the spirit." In other words, they will receive immortality in the resurrection and will have a life that measures with the life of God.
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1Pet.3:18 For Christ also hath once suffered for sins, the just for the unjust, that he might bring us to God, being put to death in the flesh, but quickened by the Spirit: 19 By which also he went and preached unto the spirits in prison; 20 Which sometime were disobedient, when once the longsuffering of God waited in the days of Noah, while the ark was a preparing, wherein few, that is, eight souls were saved by water.

There has been considerable misunderstanding of these verses of Scripture. It has been taught that Christ actually descended into the lower regions of the earth and preached to lost souls who were in prison in some type of purgatory or limbo. This is very far from what the text actually says.

Let' s look at it closely now and get the real message of these verses. It says, "Christ also hath once suffered for sins ... that he might bring us to God, being put to death in the flesh, but quickened by the Spirit: By which also he went and preached."

First of all, notice how Christ preached to those spirits in prison. He did it by the Spirit, and that word is capitalized in your Bible. So whatsoever Christ did in preaching during this period of time, He did it through or by the Holy Spirit.

With that in view, let's ask this: "When was the preaching done?" The answer is plainly given in v. 20: "when once the longsuffering of God waited in the days of Noah, while the ark was a preparing." So the preaching was actually done while the ark was being built, during the preaching of Noah to that antediluvian world. We even see Peter tell us plainly that Noah was a “preacher of righteousness”, (2Pe 2:5).

Now, one more question: "To whom was the preaching done?" The text says here "unto the spirits in prison." Throughout the Bible we find this terminology used in describing those who are bound in the prison house of sin. David prayed, "Bring my soul out of prison." (Psa. 142:7). Isaiah and Christ describe the same thing that happened to Noah, as happened to them!

Isa 61:1 The SPIRIT OF THE LORD GOD IS UPON ME; because the Lord hat anointed me TO PREACH GOOD TIDINGS unto the meek; he hath sent me to bind up the brokenhearted, to proclaim liberty TO THE CAPTIVES, and the opening of the PRISON to [them that are] BOUND;

Luke 4:18 The SPIRIT OF THE LORD IS UPON ME, because he hath anointed me TO PREACH THE GOSPEL to the poor; he hath sent me to heal the brokenhearted, TO PREACH DELIVERANCE TO THE CAPTIVES and recovering of sight to the blind, to set at liberty them that are bruised,....21 And he began to say unto them, This day is this scripture fulfilled in your ears.

Paul spoke of his experience in these words, "bringing me into captivity to the law of sin.", (Rom.7:23). What Peter is telling us here is simply that Christ, through the Holy Spirit, was present while Noah preached; Christ was there through the Holy Spirit to speak conviction to their hearts and appeal to them to come into the ark.

There is absolutely nothing in this text to indicate that Jesus left His body during the time He was dead, to go to any subterranean place to minister to wicked spirits. The three questions are clearly answered in the text itself: (1) that He preached by the Holy Spirit, (2) He did it while the ark was preparing, and (3) He did it to the spirits in prison, or to those individuals whose sinful lives were bound in the prison house of sin.
 
I totally agree with you and think you have presented a good explanation. Here is a literal translation I did of 1 Peter 3:17-21:

It is better, if the will of GOD wills suffering, to do good than to do evil, because Christ suffered concerning sins once, a just one for the sake of unjust ones, that he might be leading to GOD us, the ones truly being put to death in the flesh,


yet being made alive in spirit; in which (i.e., in spirit) he (Christ) proclaimed to spirits of disbelieving ones, (now) relocated in prison, at the time when GOD's longsuffering waited once (and only once) in the days Noah constructed an ark,

into which few, that is eight souls, were saved through water; which to us now is a representation of baptism saving us; not putting off filthy flesh, but an inquiry of a good conscience into GOD through the resurrection of Jesus Christ. 1 Peter 3:17-21
​
 
I totally agree with you and think you have presented a good explanation. Here is a literal translation I did of 1 Peter 3:17-21:

It is better, if the will of GOD wills suffering, to do good than to do evil, because Christ suffered concerning sins once, a just one for the sake of unjust ones, that he might be leading to GOD us, the ones truly being put to death in the flesh,


yet being made alive in spirit; in which (i.e., in spirit) he (Christ) proclaimed to spirits of disbelieving ones, (now) relocated in prison, at the time when GOD's longsuffering waited once (and only once) in the days Noah constructed an ark,

into which few, that is eight souls, were saved through water; which to us now is a representation of baptism saving us; not putting off filthy flesh, but an inquiry of a good conscience into GOD through the resurrection of Jesus Christ. 1 Peter 3:17-21
​

Thank you. I tried to be thorough. I see so many people mention this passage as evidence of ghosts, heaven, hell, death, etc...
 
In my opinion from my studies, there is both physical and spiritual death/satan

The spiritual part of this being, death/satan, is currently roaming this earth, looking for any child of God, anywhere, anytime, to deceive them from knowing the true heritage of their inner-being; with babel/confusion (theories, philosophies, religions) about the truth.

Usually through some explanation about the heritage of ones outer-being; for there IS NO difference, whether Jew, Greek, or Gentile in ANY nation; that their inner-being had not already existed, before this current temporal flesh/death realm of reality.

Once convicted of this false heritage, are now prime meat for bonehead/satan to use for his will;(mentally influenced) and then only gets worse from there.

The physical part of death/satan (in the same body were ALL waiting for) is being held by Michael the Arc Angel, and wherever this IS, this would be the actual real hell that's referred to, NOT the shadows of it that we are currently in, in reality.

There are only 2 times in the Bible that I recall that Satan/Death was allowed to roam this earth both physically and spiritually; Once, disguised as an angel of light (but actually the serpent) to The Adam and Eve.

Secondly to Christ/Messiah when he was tempted by satan/death for 40 days and nights in the mountain; After receiving the Holy Spirit through John the Baptist.

The people's of the earth that passed over in the time of Noah's flood had to wait a LOOOOOOONG time in hell, before the promise of the coming Messiah/Christ.

They simply did Not have the proof, and chose Not to believe the spoken Word, concerning the Living Word.

Our Father IS the fair ONE! we have all 3, the spoken, written and Living Word. Do you not think that after waiting untold hundreds of years in hell with bonehead himself, that Our Father would not offer them the opportunity to wait under the Alter instead of where they found themselves to be in reality?

Who do you believe went before Christ into hell, to foretell them of his coming?

I believe it was Judas Iscariot, after all he was an Apostle, not just a Disciple; I believe that Judas had to do something that was worthy of being sent there; and that it was for a better and higher purpose; to announce the very soon arrival of Christ to free them from Satan's prison.

But in reality, hell has been filling up again, since the time of Christ, and when Christ/Melchezidek shows up this time, BOTH, the real hell where Satan IS, and THIS shadow of that hell he satan/death influences WILL both cease to exist.

Then begins The Day in which I truly do fear and tremble for; The Lord's Day! EEEEEEEEEEEEEEEEEEEEEEK! IF!, i still have to be taught about Our Father's WILL AND Testament of that WILL.

Think about it, the rich man was alive and talking to Abraham, though they certainly were Not in the same place.
 
WeStand,
look like you used this thread to post your own ideas and not to actually comment on what was posted. It appears that you did not even read OP, is that correct?
 
when jesus preached to the spirits in prison...it means he went to hell and preached to the spirits there...

people get confused because they ask 'how can jesus offer the gospel to people in hell?' and the theory presented in this thread is just a way of avoiding that issue...

but the thing to realize is that the gospel of salvation is not the only thing that can be preached...

jesus wasn't there to preach salvation...he was there to preach -judgment-

God's approach to justice is such that he never leaves the justness of his judgments in question...even those that are condemned have to accept that their condemnation is just...and what jesus was doing by preaching in hell was showing himself as the living proof that they were wrong to disbelieve and that their condemnation and punishment was just...

just as christ's resurrection is the main source of hope and assurance for the christian...it is also the ultimate source of reproach and condemnation for the unbeliever...
 


There are only 2 times in the Bible that I recall that Satan/Death was allowed to roam this earth both physically and spiritually; Once, disguised as an angel of light (but actually the serpent) to The Adam and Eve.
What about in Job when satan replies to God that he is roaming around the earth, is that another time?

when jesus preached to the spirits in prison...it means he went to hell and preached to the spirits there...

people get confused because they ask 'how can jesus offer the gospel to people in hell?' and the theory presented in this thread is just a way of avoiding that issue...

but the thing to realize is that the gospel of salvation is not the only thing that can be preached...

jesus wasn't there to preach salvation...he was there to preach -judgment-

God's approach to justice is such that he never leaves the justness of his judgments in question...even those that are condemned have to accept that their condemnation is just...and what jesus was doing by preaching in hell was showing himself as the living proof that they were wrong to disbelieve and that their condemnation and punishment was just...

just as christ's resurrection is the main source of hope and assurance for the christian...it is also the ultimate source of reproach and condemnation for the unbeliever...
I think KAdamW will strongly disagree with you considering his OP has mentioned that interpretation is incorrect lol Personally I'm leaning more towards KAdamW's understanding of the scripture since the whole Jesus going down to hell and preaching to spirits idea never really settled with me (not that He can't do that, just never really believed that He did) so I just put it on the shelf with other things that I don't consider vital to my foundation.
 
when jesus preached to the spirits in prison...it means he went to hell and preached to the spirits there...

people get confused because they ask 'how can jesus offer the gospel to people in hell?' and the theory presented in this thread is just a way of avoiding that issue...

but the thing to realize is that the gospel of salvation is not the only thing that can be preached...

jesus wasn't there to preach salvation...he was there to preach -judgment-

God's approach to justice is such that he never leaves the justness of his judgments in question...even those that are condemned have to accept that their condemnation is just...and what jesus was doing by preaching in hell was showing himself as the living proof that they were wrong to disbelieve and that their condemnation and punishment was just...

just as christ's resurrection is the main source of hope and assurance for the christian...it is also the ultimate source of reproach and condemnation for the unbeliever...

This is not what Peter said. Look at the language of text, the time frame in which the preaching was done and how that preaching was done. Peter does not even imply that Jesus ever went into hell.
 
What about in Job when satan replies to God that he is roaming around the earth, is that another time?


I think KAdamW will strongly disagree with you considering his OP has mentioned that interpretation is incorrect lol Personally I'm leaning more towards KAdamW's understanding of the scripture since the whole Jesus going down to hell and preaching to spirits idea never really settled with me (not that He can't do that, just never really believed that He did) so I just put it on the shelf with other things that I don't consider vital to my foundation.

When does Peter say the preaching was done? In the days of Noah.
To whom was the good news preached at that time? To those who are NOW in prison. They were not in prison when they heard the good news.
What was the good news preached in the days of Noah. "There is a flood coming and you do not have to die!"
 
I think KAdamW will strongly disagree with you considering his OP has mentioned that interpretation is incorrect lol Personally I'm leaning more towards KAdamW's understanding of the scripture since the whole Jesus going down to hell and preaching to spirits idea never really settled with me (not that He can't do that, just never really believed that He did) so I just put it on the shelf with other things that I don't consider vital to my foundation.

he probably will disagree...however i think his interpretation deviates from a clear reading of the text...

first of all the text says -jesus- is the one who preached to the spirits in prison...nowhere in scripture will you find the preaching of a prophet described as if jesus himself was the one doing the preaching...in fact the epistle to the hebrews makes a distinction between the word being given through a prophet and the word coming through christ... so there is no biblical precedent for this interpretation...

secondly the text says jesus -went- and preached...logically this would refer to an actual change of location...and not simply the sending out of a messenger to preach...the only time we are told in the bible that jesus moved from location to location was during his ministry...so that would place whatever peter is speaking of during jesus' ministry...not 2,500 years earlier...

lastly the text says jesus preached to 'the spirits in prison'...it doesn't say that jesus preached to 'the spirits who would later end up in prison'...the most natural conclusion would be that the spirits were in prison already when jesus preached to them...

overall this interpretation just seems to be an unnatural contortion specifically invented to avoid the implications of a more obvious reading of the text...
 
he probably will disagree...however i think his interpretation deviates from a clear reading of the text...

first of all the text says -jesus- is the one who preached to the spirits in prison...nowhere in scripture will you find the preaching of a prophet described as if jesus himself was the one doing the preaching...in fact the epistle to the hebrews makes a distinction between the word being given through a prophet and the word coming through christ... so there is no biblical precedent for this interpretation...

secondly the text says jesus -went- and preached...logically this would refer to an actual change of location...and not simply the sending out of a messenger to preach...the only time we are told in the bible that jesus moved from location to location was during his ministry...so that would place whatever peter is speaking of during jesus' ministry...not 2,500 years earlier...

lastly the text says jesus preached to 'the spirits in prison'...it doesn't say that jesus preached to 'the spirits who would later end up in prison'...the most natural conclusion would be that the spirits were in prison already when jesus preached to them...

overall this interpretation just seems to be an unnatural contortion specifically invented to avoid the implications of a more obvious reading of the text...

Simply diagram that verse and you will figure it out.
 
This is not what Peter said. Look at the language of text, the time frame in which the preaching was done and how that preaching was done. Peter does not even imply that Jesus ever went into hell.

the time frame and how the preaching was done actually make it more likely that jesus himself went to the prison to preach to the spirits there...

jesus preached to 'the spirits in prison'...not to 'spirits who later went to prison'

jesus -went- and preached to them...it doesn't say he sent someone else to preach to them...

and nowhere in the text does it imply that jesus preached to them through the intermediary of a prophet...
 
When does Peter say the preaching was done? In the days of Noah.

that is a gramatically incorrect interpretation of the passage...

it doesn't say that the preaching was done in the days of noah...it says that the disobedience of the spirits and the longsuffering of God were during the days of noah...

the text says nothing to directly identify when the preaching was done...though the most natural conclusion from the phrase 'preached to the spirits in prison' is that they were in prison already when the preaching was going on...
 
that is a gramatically incorrect interpretation of the passage...

it doesn't say that the preaching was done in the days of noah...it says that the disobedience of the spirits and the longsuffering of God were during the days of noah...

the text says nothing to directly identify when the preaching was done...though the most natural conclusion from the phrase 'preached to the spirits in prison' is that they were in prison already when the preaching was going on...

Diagram that verse and see.
 
maybe an analogy will clarify the issue...suppose i said this...

'i went and talked with my friend in the hospital who was in a car accident'

nobody would conclude from that statement that i talked with my friend during the car accident...the obvious meaning of the statement would be that our conversation took place when my friend was in the hospital...therefore i must have visited my friend in the hospital to talk with her...
 
I've been diagramming it too. But I'm not a pro. So far, it seems to infer that:

Christ, when brought to life in spirit, went to those who were wicked in the days of Noah, preached to them; they are now in prison.

I am new to diagramming from the Greek. In the KJV it sounds like the same Spirit that raised Christ from the dead is the one that preached through Noah. I don't see how they got this from the Greek... but I'm new at this. In most other versions it sounds more like Christ preached to them after He was resurrected, or at least resurrected in spirit...
Any good commentaries on 1 Peter? The only one I have is very liberal.
 
1 Peter 3:18-20

​
18 Christ ... truly put to death in flesh, yet made alive in spirit, 19 in which [i.e., in spirit] to spirits being gone in prison, 20 [Christ] proclaimed to disobedient ones at a time when the patience of GOD waited in the days of Noah when an ark was being constructed, into which few, this is eight souls, were saved through water.​

No need for a convoluted interpretation about Christ preaching to the dead when the above literal translation is sensible and makes sense. Especially when considering the fact that Christ proclaimed salvation through Noah to the disobedient souls who perished.

And spared not the old world, but saved Noah the eighth person, a preacher of righteousness, bringing in the flood upon the world of the ungodly; 2 Peter 2:5​
 
1 Peter 3:18-20
18 Christ ... truly put to death in flesh, yet made alive in spirit, 19 in which [i.e., in spirit] to spirits being gone in prison, 20 [Christ] proclaimed to disobedient ones at a time when the patience of GOD waited in the days of Noah when an ark was being constructed, into which few, this is eight souls, were saved through water.​

No need for a convoluted interpretation about Christ preaching to the dead when the above literal translation is sensible and makes sense. Especially when considering the fact that Christ proclaimed salvation through Noah to the disobedient souls who perished.

And spared not the old world, but saved Noah the eighth person, a preacher of righteousness, bringing in the flood upon the world of the ungodly; 2 Peter 2:5​

what is convoluted is insisting on this new interpretation that imposes an unnatural and grammatically dubious reading on the text...

noah preached righteousness to the people living before the flood...but nowhere does the bible say that christ spoke through noah...in fact nowhere does the bible ever describe the work of a prophet as the preincarnate christ preaching through them...

hebrews 1:1-2 actually makes a clear distinction between God speaking through the prophets and God speaking through christ...

so this idea that peter is just talking about the preincarnate christ preaching to the world through noah long ago is entirely unprecedented in scripture...

also peter specifically says that christ -went- and preached to the spirits in prison...he actually went to those spirits...he didn't just send a message from heaven through an intermediary prophet...

peter also says that christ went there by the spirit...in several other places in scripture there are references to people in the spirit actually traveling in the spiritual realm...it is reasonable to assume that peter is talking about the same kind of thing...christ traveling to where the spirits are and preaching to them in person...not through noah...

there are just so many glaring flaws in this interpretation that i can only conclude that people are supporting it for reasons other than its supposed 'sensibility'...as i mentioned before a lot of people are confused about the implications of christ's preaching in hell...and this interpretation just seems to be a misguided attempt at avoiding those issues entirely...
 
WeStand,
look like you used this thread to post your own ideas and not to actually comment on what was posted. It appears that you did not even read OP, is that correct?

Nope! didn't read the OP, because I don't know what an OP is. (let me guess; other people?)

Nope! not my idea's.

Yep! your probably right! :confused: