STATUTES , PRECEPTS , JUDGEMENTS, TESTOMONIES, ETC
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The commadments of God
Matthew 15
King James Version (KJV)
15 Then came to Jesus scribes and Pharisees, which were of Jerusalem, saying,
2 Why do thy disciples transgress the tradition of the elders? for they wash not their hands when they eat bread.
3 But he answered and said unto them, Why do ye also transgress the commandment of God by your tradition?
4 For God commanded, saying, Honour thy father and mother: and, He that curseth father or mother, let him die the death.
5 But ye say, Whosoever shall say to his father or his mother, It is a gift, by whatsoever thou mightest be profited by me;
6 And honour not his father or his mother, he shall be free. Thus have ye made the commandment of God of none effect by your tradition.
Matthew 15
King James Version (KJV)
15 Then came to Jesus scribes and Pharisees, which were of Jerusalem, saying,
2 Why do thy disciples transgress the tradition of the elders? for they wash not their hands when they eat bread.
3 But he answered and said unto them, Why do ye also transgress the commandment of God by your tradition?
4 For God commanded, saying, Honour thy father and mother: and, He that curseth father or mother, let him die the death.
5 But ye say, Whosoever shall say to his father or his mother, It is a gift, by whatsoever thou mightest be profited by me;
6 And honour not his father or his mother, he shall be free. Thus have ye made the commandment of God of none effect by your tradition.
This is a statute not part of the ten commandments but you have to keep it
Leviticus 10:9 Do not drink wine nor strong drink, thou, nor thy sons with thee, when ye go into the tabernacle of the congregation, lest ye die: it shall be a statute for ever throughout your generations:
Leviticus 10:9 Do not drink wine nor strong drink, thou, nor thy sons with thee, when ye go into the tabernacle of the congregation, lest ye die: it shall be a statute for ever throughout your generations:
look at another difference here
Nehemiah 9:14And madest known unto them thy holy sabbath, and commandedst them precepts, statutes, and laws, by the hand of Moses thy servant
Nehemiah 9:14And madest known unto them thy holy sabbath, and commandedst them precepts, statutes, and laws, by the hand of Moses thy servant
Heb 7:19 For the law made nothing perfect, but the bringing in of a better hope did; by the which we draw nigh unto God.
Nope.
Three things:
1) That's not what the text states.
Heb 7:11 - The Mosaic law was based on the Aaronic priesthood, which was required for the law's administration.
Heb 7:12 - With a change in the priesthood, the law no longer had a basis and was necessarily changed.
Heb 7:13-17 - Explains the existing system was to give way to the perfection of Melchizedek's priesthood.
Heb 7:18 - The law was set aside (disannulled) because it was "weak and useless (unprofitable)"
Heb 7:19 - to make perfect (righteous), and a better hope is introduced which did.
That is not a description of the Aaronic priesthood law.
That is the NT description of the Mosaic law (Ro 8:3; Heb 10:1-4), on which the Mosaic (old) covenant was based (Heb 7:11).
2) Furthermore, "a better hope is introduced (which did make perfect), by which we draw near to God." (Heb 7:19)
That "better hope" (which did make perfect) is the new covenant (Lk 22:20), which assures us of complete redemption (Heb 10:4) and brings us into the presence of God.
3) The Old (Sinaitic) Covenant was made obsolete (Heb 8:13), not by changing the law for the priesthood, but by changing and setting aside the Mosaic law.
Heb 7:12 does not refer to a change of the Aaronic priesthood law,
but to a change and setting aside of the Mosaic Law (Heb 7:18-19).
Nope.
Three things:
1) That's not what the text states.
Heb 7:11 - The Mosaic law was based on the Aaronic priesthood, which was required for the law's administration.
Heb 7:12 - With a change in the priesthood, the law no longer had a basis and was necessarily changed.
Heb 7:13-17 - Explains the existing system was to give way to the perfection of Melchizedek's priesthood.
Heb 7:18 - The law was set aside (disannulled) because it was "weak and useless (unprofitable)"
Heb 7:19 - to make perfect (righteous), and a better hope is introduced which did.
That is not a description of the Aaronic priesthood law.
That is the NT description of the Mosaic law (Ro 8:3; Heb 10:1-4), on which the Mosaic (old) covenant was based (Heb 7:11).
2) Furthermore, "a better hope is introduced (which did make perfect), by which we draw near to God." (Heb 7:19)
That "better hope" (which did make perfect) is the new covenant (Lk 22:20), which assures us of complete redemption (Heb 10:4) and brings us into the presence of God.
3) The Old (Sinaitic) Covenant was made obsolete (Heb 8:13), not by changing the law for the priesthood, but by changing and setting aside the Mosaic law.
Heb 7:12 does not refer to a change of the Aaronic priesthood law,
but to a change and setting aside of the Mosaic Law (Heb 7:18-19).
Hello friend,
Please bear in mind the Law,
the Prophets and the Psalms were all (spiritually/ metaphorically) fulfilled in Jesus,
the Apostles and their converts and continues >> until Jesus physically returns.
Jesus is ate present with his own while others have various views.
If we follow the Apostles' Doctrine then we enter the invisible things.
At present the baptism has been misrepresented.
Private seekers are doing well with the Gifts from GOD.
OK.
GOD promised to 'change/alter' the people:
Ezek.36
[22] Therefore say unto the house of Israel (the 12 tribes),
Thus saith the Lord GOD; (the Father)
I do not this for your sakes, O house of Israel,
but for mine holy name's (reputation's) sake, (See 1 John.2 Below)
which ye have profaned (defamed) among the heathen, whither ye went.
[23] And I will sanctify my great name, (remember Jesus taught us :"hallowed by thy name")
which was profaned among the heathen, which ye have profaned in the midst of them;
and the heathen shall know that I am the LORD (the Father/ the Highest), saith the Lord GOD,
when I shall be sanctified in you before their eyes.
[24] For I will take you from among the heathen, >> (through the Apostles)
and gather you out of all countries, and will bring you into your own (spiritual) land.
[25] Then I (GOD not yourself) will sprinkle clean water (the Apostles' Doctrine) upon you, >> (wash you)
and ye shall be clean: from all your filthiness >> (hatred and evil),
and I will cleanse you from all your idols.
[26] A new heart also will I give you,
and a new spirit will I put within you:
and I will take away the stony (stubborn) heart out of your flesh,
and I will give you an heart of flesh.
[27] And I will put my spirit within you,
and cause you to walk >> in my statutes,
and ye shall >> keep my judgments, and do them.
[28] And ye shall dwell in the (spiritual) land that I gave to your (3) fathers;
and ye (Apostles and converts) shall be my people, and I (the Father) will be your God.
1 John 2
[12] I write unto you, little children, because your sins are forgiven you for his name's sake.
The short answer is that when a person comes to Jesus,
through the particular baptism, Jesus through the lovely Spirit,
strenghtens him or her to love and to do good and that covers all laws...
People who have not been baptized correctly will deny what I say but the Scriptures tell all.
I do not want to be too lenghty so PM me if you wish.
The best to you.
You are young if you get GOD helping you from now you will be ok... )
Keep well.
Please bear in mind the Law,
the Prophets and the Psalms were all (spiritually/ metaphorically) fulfilled in Jesus,
the Apostles and their converts and continues >> until Jesus physically returns.
Jesus is ate present with his own while others have various views.
If we follow the Apostles' Doctrine then we enter the invisible things.
At present the baptism has been misrepresented.
Private seekers are doing well with the Gifts from GOD.
OK.
GOD promised to 'change/alter' the people:
Ezek.36
[22] Therefore say unto the house of Israel (the 12 tribes),
Thus saith the Lord GOD; (the Father)
I do not this for your sakes, O house of Israel,
but for mine holy name's (reputation's) sake, (See 1 John.2 Below)
which ye have profaned (defamed) among the heathen, whither ye went.
[23] And I will sanctify my great name, (remember Jesus taught us :"hallowed by thy name")
which was profaned among the heathen, which ye have profaned in the midst of them;
and the heathen shall know that I am the LORD (the Father/ the Highest), saith the Lord GOD,
when I shall be sanctified in you before their eyes.
[24] For I will take you from among the heathen, >> (through the Apostles)
and gather you out of all countries, and will bring you into your own (spiritual) land.
[25] Then I (GOD not yourself) will sprinkle clean water (the Apostles' Doctrine) upon you, >> (wash you)
and ye shall be clean: from all your filthiness >> (hatred and evil),
and I will cleanse you from all your idols.
[26] A new heart also will I give you,
and a new spirit will I put within you:
and I will take away the stony (stubborn) heart out of your flesh,
and I will give you an heart of flesh.
[27] And I will put my spirit within you,
and cause you to walk >> in my statutes,
and ye shall >> keep my judgments, and do them.
[28] And ye shall dwell in the (spiritual) land that I gave to your (3) fathers;
and ye (Apostles and converts) shall be my people, and I (the Father) will be your God.
1 John 2
[12] I write unto you, little children, because your sins are forgiven you for his name's sake.
The short answer is that when a person comes to Jesus,
through the particular baptism, Jesus through the lovely Spirit,
strenghtens him or her to love and to do good and that covers all laws...
People who have not been baptized correctly will deny what I say but the Scriptures tell all.
I do not want to be too lenghty so PM me if you wish.
The best to you.
You are young if you get GOD helping you from now you will be ok... )
Keep well.
D
Please show us the Scripture (book chapter and verse please) that says we must speak while under water if we are to be baptized correctly. Those who are well versed in the Scriptures will not buy into the heretical view that you have some special revelation about baptism that has been lost to Christianity for the last 2000 years.
For those who are unaware this cult has secrets they don’t want to share on CC see this post @ http://christianchat.com/bible-discussion-forum/78817-recovering-matt-28-19-baptism-formula-pro-christ-gentile-save-thyself-7.html#post1300649
For those who are unaware this cult has secrets they don’t want to share on CC see this post @ http://christianchat.com/bible-discussion-forum/78817-recovering-matt-28-19-baptism-formula-pro-christ-gentile-save-thyself-7.html#post1300649
And you base the entire point on the statement "The Mosaic law was based on the Aaronic priesthood, which was required for the law's administration." I would see some scripture to prove this. In the meantime...
Exo 28:1 And take thou unto thee Aaron thy brother, and his sons with him, from among the children of Israel, that he may minister unto me in the priest's office, even Aaron, Nadab and Abihu, Eleazar and Ithamar, Aaron's sons.
Exo 28:2 And thou shalt make holy garments for Aaron thy brother for glory and for beauty.
Exo 28:3 And thou shalt speak unto all that are wise hearted, whom I have filled with the spirit of wisdom, that they may make Aaron's garments to consecrate him, that he may minister unto me in the priest's office.
Teh Aaronic Piresthood was NOT established until months after The Ten Commandments were given to the people. Were teh Ten Commandments around prior to Ex 20?
Exo 16:28 And the LORD said unto Moses, How long refuse ye to keep my commandments and my laws?
The word for Laws here is...
H8451
תּרה תּורה
tôrâh tôrâh
to-raw', to-raw'
From H3384; a precept or statute, especially the Decalogue or Pentateuch: - law.
Well now, that is a problem for your theory. Let's look back further in time...
Gen 26:5 Because that Abraham obeyed my voice, and kept my charge, my commandments, my statutes, and my laws.
The word here for Laws is...
H8451
תּרה תּורה
tôrâh tôrâh
to-raw', to-raw'
From H3384; a precept or statute, especially the Decalogue or Pentateuch: - law.
And this was several hundred years before Aaron was a twinkle in Amram's eye.
Now what does Paul say?
Rom 5:12 Wherefore, as by one man sin entered into the world, and death by sin; and so death passed upon all men, for that all have sinned:
Who was the "one man"? Do you disagree with this being Adam? (that would be another discussion)
Rom 5:13 (For until the law sin was in the world: but sin is not imputed when there is no law.
What does "until the Law" mean? The time span up until Mt. Sinai.
Paul plainly tells us that without Law there is no transgression...
Rom 4:15 Because the law worketh wrath: for where no law is, there is no transgression.
Something early on I did was to find a case or statement of every one of the Ten Commandments prior to Ex 20:1. They are all there and if full force.
Nice stretch, but not correct. If you simply read the chapter you see that...
Heb 10:1 For the law having a shadow of good things to come, and not the very image of the things, can never with those sacrifices which they offered year by year continually make the comers thereunto perfect.
Heb 10:2 For then would they not have ceased to be offered? because that the worshippers once purged should have had no more conscience of sins.
Heb 10:3 But in those sacrifices there is a remembrance again made of sins every year.
Heb 10:4 For it is not possible that the blood of bulls and of goats should take away sins.
Heb 10:12 But this man, after he had offered one sacrifice for sins for ever, sat down on the right hand of God;
Heb 10:16 This is the covenant that I will make with them after those days, saith the Lord, I will put my laws into their hearts, and in their minds will I write them;
The New Covenant is the writing of the Torah (look at Jer 31:33 and see what the inspired word for Law is) in our hearts and minds.
Heb 10:17 And their sins and iniquities will I remember no more.
Heb 10:18 Now where remission of these is, there is no more offering for sin.
Heb 10:19 Having therefore, brethren, boldness to enter into the holiest by the blood of Jesus,
Heb 10:20 By a new and living way, which he hath consecrated for us, through the veil, that is to say, his flesh;
This new and living way is the forgiveness of sin by the offering a perfect sacrifice HIS FLESH.
Well if that is the case then the Priesthood didn't change? It was only the Law that changed? No, when we read the whole chapter, we see the subject is the changing of the Priesthood from the Aaronic Priesthood, that had to offer animal sacrifices continually, to the Melchisidec Priesthood with one offering once for all...
Heb 10:12 But this man, after he had offered one sacrifice for sins for ever, sat down on the right hand of God;
Heb 10:13 From henceforth expecting till his enemies be made his footstool.
Heb 10:14 For by one offering he hath perfected for ever them that are sanctified.
Oddly enough your entire statement is incorrect. Not only is it about a change in the Priesthood ("For the priesthood being changed," whatever could that mean?) the Law concerning the Priesthood was not set aside, it was changed. There is a difference between changing something and setting it aside. Ever change the color of a room? Did that set it aside? Ever change your hair style? Bald now are you?
What do the verses around Hebrews 7:12 say?
Heb 7:11 If therefore perfection were by the Levitical priesthood, (for under it the people received the law,) what further need was there that another priest should rise after the order of Melchisedec, and not be called after the order of Aaron?
Heb 7:12 For the priesthood being changed, there is made of necessity a change also of the law.
Heb 7:13 For he of whom these things are spoken pertaineth to another tribe, of which no man gave attendance at the altar.
Heb 7:14 For it is evident that our Lord sprang out of Juda; of which tribe Moses spake nothing concerning priesthood.
Heb 7:15 And it is yet far more evident: for that after the similitude of Melchisedec there ariseth another priest,
Heb 7:16 Who is made, not after the law of a carnal commandment, but after the power of an endless life.
Heb 7:17 For he testifieth, Thou art a priest for ever after the order of Melchisedec.
The author (I believe to be Paul) is plainly speaking of the Priesthood, not the setting aside of the Law.
Exo 28:1 And take thou unto thee Aaron thy brother, and his sons with him, from among the children of Israel, that he may minister unto me in the priest's office, even Aaron, Nadab and Abihu, Eleazar and Ithamar, Aaron's sons.
Exo 28:2 And thou shalt make holy garments for Aaron thy brother for glory and for beauty.
Exo 28:3 And thou shalt speak unto all that are wise hearted, whom I have filled with the spirit of wisdom, that they may make Aaron's garments to consecrate him, that he may minister unto me in the priest's office.
Teh Aaronic Piresthood was NOT established until months after The Ten Commandments were given to the people. Were teh Ten Commandments around prior to Ex 20?
Exo 16:28 And the LORD said unto Moses, How long refuse ye to keep my commandments and my laws?
The word for Laws here is...
H8451
תּרה תּורה
tôrâh tôrâh
to-raw', to-raw'
From H3384; a precept or statute, especially the Decalogue or Pentateuch: - law.
Well now, that is a problem for your theory. Let's look back further in time...
Gen 26:5 Because that Abraham obeyed my voice, and kept my charge, my commandments, my statutes, and my laws.
The word here for Laws is...
H8451
תּרה תּורה
tôrâh tôrâh
to-raw', to-raw'
From H3384; a precept or statute, especially the Decalogue or Pentateuch: - law.
And this was several hundred years before Aaron was a twinkle in Amram's eye.
Now what does Paul say?
Rom 5:12 Wherefore, as by one man sin entered into the world, and death by sin; and so death passed upon all men, for that all have sinned:
Who was the "one man"? Do you disagree with this being Adam? (that would be another discussion)
Rom 5:13 (For until the law sin was in the world: but sin is not imputed when there is no law.
What does "until the Law" mean? The time span up until Mt. Sinai.
Paul plainly tells us that without Law there is no transgression...
Rom 4:15 Because the law worketh wrath: for where no law is, there is no transgression.
Something early on I did was to find a case or statement of every one of the Ten Commandments prior to Ex 20:1. They are all there and if full force.
Nice stretch, but not correct. If you simply read the chapter you see that...
Heb 10:1 For the law having a shadow of good things to come, and not the very image of the things, can never with those sacrifices which they offered year by year continually make the comers thereunto perfect.
Heb 10:2 For then would they not have ceased to be offered? because that the worshippers once purged should have had no more conscience of sins.
Heb 10:3 But in those sacrifices there is a remembrance again made of sins every year.
Heb 10:4 For it is not possible that the blood of bulls and of goats should take away sins.
Heb 10:12 But this man, after he had offered one sacrifice for sins for ever, sat down on the right hand of God;
Heb 10:16 This is the covenant that I will make with them after those days, saith the Lord, I will put my laws into their hearts, and in their minds will I write them;
The New Covenant is the writing of the Torah (look at Jer 31:33 and see what the inspired word for Law is) in our hearts and minds.
Heb 10:17 And their sins and iniquities will I remember no more.
Heb 10:18 Now where remission of these is, there is no more offering for sin.
Heb 10:19 Having therefore, brethren, boldness to enter into the holiest by the blood of Jesus,
Heb 10:20 By a new and living way, which he hath consecrated for us, through the veil, that is to say, his flesh;
This new and living way is the forgiveness of sin by the offering a perfect sacrifice HIS FLESH.
Well if that is the case then the Priesthood didn't change? It was only the Law that changed? No, when we read the whole chapter, we see the subject is the changing of the Priesthood from the Aaronic Priesthood, that had to offer animal sacrifices continually, to the Melchisidec Priesthood with one offering once for all...
Heb 10:12 But this man, after he had offered one sacrifice for sins for ever, sat down on the right hand of God;
Heb 10:13 From henceforth expecting till his enemies be made his footstool.
Heb 10:14 For by one offering he hath perfected for ever them that are sanctified.
Oddly enough your entire statement is incorrect. Not only is it about a change in the Priesthood ("For the priesthood being changed," whatever could that mean?) the Law concerning the Priesthood was not set aside, it was changed. There is a difference between changing something and setting it aside. Ever change the color of a room? Did that set it aside? Ever change your hair style? Bald now are you?
What do the verses around Hebrews 7:12 say?
Heb 7:11 If therefore perfection were by the Levitical priesthood, (for under it the people received the law,) what further need was there that another priest should rise after the order of Melchisedec, and not be called after the order of Aaron?
Heb 7:12 For the priesthood being changed, there is made of necessity a change also of the law.
Heb 7:13 For he of whom these things are spoken pertaineth to another tribe, of which no man gave attendance at the altar.
Heb 7:14 For it is evident that our Lord sprang out of Juda; of which tribe Moses spake nothing concerning priesthood.
Heb 7:15 And it is yet far more evident: for that after the similitude of Melchisedec there ariseth another priest,
Heb 7:16 Who is made, not after the law of a carnal commandment, but after the power of an endless life.
Heb 7:17 For he testifieth, Thou art a priest for ever after the order of Melchisedec.
The author (I believe to be Paul) is plainly speaking of the Priesthood, not the setting aside of the Law.
Read Heb 7:12 above again.
The giving of the Law is a continuous revelation without interuption from Ex 20 to the end of Leviticus.
None of it took effect until all of it took effect with the establishment of the Aaronic priesthood to administer it.
That Ex 20 is on the front end and Leviticus 9 is in the middle of the giving of the law has no bearing on the Mosaic law being based on (given under) the Aaronic priesthood, as stated in Heb 7:11, and being changed (Heb 7:12) and set aside as stated in Heb 7:18.
.
Yes, that would be God's commands and instructions before Sinai (e.g., Ex 12:14-20, 13:1-2, 16:4-5, where God tested their obedience), including laws given all the way back in Ge.
No stretch at all, it's what Scripture states.
Yep. . .that would be the law of Christ (1Co 9:21; Gal 6:2) which Jesus gave in Mt 22:37-39, and which he said fulfills all the Law (Pentateuch) and the Prophets; i.e., the entirety of OT Scripture (Mt 22:40).
Presented and addressed above.
Not according to the text.
The giving of the Law is a continuous revelation without interuption from Ex 20 to the end of Leviticus.
None of it took effect until all of it took effect with the establishment of the Aaronic priesthood to administer it.
That Ex 20 is on the front end and Leviticus 9 is in the middle of the giving of the law has no bearing on the Mosaic law being based on (given under) the Aaronic priesthood, as stated in Heb 7:11, and being changed (Heb 7:12) and set aside as stated in Heb 7:18.
.
Yes, that would be God's commands and instructions before Sinai (e.g., Ex 12:14-20, 13:1-2, 16:4-5, where God tested their obedience), including laws given all the way back in Ge.
No stretch at all, it's what Scripture states.
Yep. . .that would be the law of Christ (1Co 9:21; Gal 6:2) which Jesus gave in Mt 22:37-39, and which he said fulfills all the Law (Pentateuch) and the Prophets; i.e., the entirety of OT Scripture (Mt 22:40).
Presented and addressed above.
Not according to the text.
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Read it. In fact I read the verses surrounding it also.
OK, then what does this mean?
Deu 5:22 These words the LORD spake unto all your assembly in the mount out of the midst of the fire, of the cloud, and of the thick darkness, with a great voice: and he added no more. And he wrote them in two tables of stone, and delivered them unto me.
God spoke the Ten Commandments to the people and what was their reply?
Exo 20:18 And all the people saw the thunderings, and the lightnings, and the noise of the trumpet, and the mountain smoking: and when the people saw it, they removed, and stood afar off.
Exo 20:19 And they said unto Moses, Speak thou with us, and we will hear: but let not God speak with us, lest we die.
Exo 20:20 And Moses said unto the people, Fear not: for God is come to prove you, and that his fear may be before your faces, that ye sin not.
Exo 20:21 And the people stood afar off, and Moses drew near unto the thick darkness where God was.
Scared 'em spitless and they pleaded with God not to talk to them again. So He didn't. He then gave the rest of the Law to Moses alone.
Other than the fact that there WAS NO AARONIC PRIESTHOOD UNTIL IT WAS ESTABLISHED IN EX 28.
Christ was the one who spoke the Law from Mt. Sinai. That is His Law. That is the Law that He said a jot or tittle would not fail from until all is fulfilled.
Would you now please explain to us how the Law has failed and all is not fulfilled?
Pulling a verse out of context here and there and misapplying it, is not how the text was meant to be read.
As others have noted they are different, but kinda the same in the same sense that you are asking it. What is proper? What is it I am suppose to do? What am I forbidden to do? Basically it boils down to asking what am I suppose to do to be pleasing to God.
Yes and no. Some of those "laws" were used as loop holes and used to allow people to sin badly Matthew 23. Jesus made the law that we are to follow much stricter than it was before. Matthew 5
Non-responsive.
The rest of the story is in Dt 27:9-10, 28:1-2, 29:1, 9-15.
Yes, the Law is not just the Ten Commandments, it's also what is given in Ex, Lev, Dt.
OK, lemme' see if I have this straight.
The law establishing the Aaronic priesthood (Ex 28)
was given under (based on) the Aaronic priesthood (Heb 7:11) before it was established,
or the priesthood was actually inaugurated (Lev 9).
Nope. . .your absurdity is further demonstration that Heb 7:12, 18 are not referring to the priesthood law, but to the Mosaic law.
Where do we find that in Scripture?
It has failed the way Heb says that it has.
The Levitical laws of sacrifice failed to remit sin (Heb 10:4), they only covered it (Ro 4:7)
until it was remitted (taken away) by the once-for-all perfect sacrifice (Heb 10:10)
offered by the perfect eternal High Priest of the perfect Melchizedek priesthood (Heb 7:13-17).
Both assertions are without demonstration and are, therefore, meritless.
The Mosaic law has necessarily been changed (Heb 7:12) and set aside (Heb 7:18),
by the change in the priesthood on which it was based (Heb 7:11), and
thereby making obsolete the Mosaic (old) covenant (Heb 8:13) which was based on the law as its conditions.
The rest of the story is in Dt 27:9-10, 28:1-2, 29:1, 9-15.
Yes, the Law is not just the Ten Commandments, it's also what is given in Ex, Lev, Dt.
OK, lemme' see if I have this straight.
The law establishing the Aaronic priesthood (Ex 28)
was given under (based on) the Aaronic priesthood (Heb 7:11) before it was established,
or the priesthood was actually inaugurated (Lev 9).
Nope. . .your absurdity is further demonstration that Heb 7:12, 18 are not referring to the priesthood law, but to the Mosaic law.
Where do we find that in Scripture?
It has failed the way Heb says that it has.
The Levitical laws of sacrifice failed to remit sin (Heb 10:4), they only covered it (Ro 4:7)
until it was remitted (taken away) by the once-for-all perfect sacrifice (Heb 10:10)
offered by the perfect eternal High Priest of the perfect Melchizedek priesthood (Heb 7:13-17).
Both assertions are without demonstration and are, therefore, meritless.
The Mosaic law has necessarily been changed (Heb 7:12) and set aside (Heb 7:18),
by the change in the priesthood on which it was based (Heb 7:11), and
thereby making obsolete the Mosaic (old) covenant (Heb 8:13) which was based on the law as its conditions.
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i am still trying to figure this out myself , 
we are in the NT
What is your favourite proverbs ?
we are in the NT What is your favourite proverbs ?
My favorite proverbs are
1:7, 20-24, 2:3-6, 10-11, 3:5-7, 4:23, 6:6-8, 10-11, 9:7-10,
10:4, 11:2, 13:22, 15:12, 21, 33, 16:4, 16, 22, 31, 33, 18:2, 19:15, 19, 25, 21:11,
22:3, 23:9, 12, 23, 27:21, 22, 28:5, 13, 29:18,
30:15, 31:30.
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