The Bible debate

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H

Historicist

Banned
#61
Dec 29, 2013
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#61
atomiku said:
Also,

In the New Testament, the RSV and the ESV are missing the following whole verses. Matthew 12:47 (though the NASB, NIV have it, but omit or bracket the others) Matthew 17:21; 18:11; 23:14; Mark 7:16; 9:44, 46; 11:26; 15:18; most of Luke 9:55-56; all of Luke 17:36; 23:17; John 5:4, Acts 8:37; 15:34; 24:7; 28:29; Romans 16:24, and most of 1 John 5:7.

You can read more here:

The Damnable English Standard Version
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I agree, and I might add, if someone wanted to create disunity and confusion in a church they might promote the use of multiple translations as a "divide and conquer" strategy.
 
T

Tintin

Guest
#62
#62
I also think it's disingenuous for modern KJV translations to leave out the Preface by the original translators that stipulated that God's Word (the translations, not the message) may need to change with the times to reach "the vulgar people", as they called ordinary folk back them. I wonder why they do that? It couldn't possibly be because the KJV-Onlyists have an agenda that the KJV translators didn't even believe in, could it?
 
KJV1611

KJV1611

Banned
#63
Nov 23, 2013
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#63
Where does the doctrine that God's word would go corrupt and go into disarray come from?
Anybody have any verses that support this doctrine?

When did it corrupt... I wonder if the book Jesus was reading out of was corrupt.

Luk 4:17 And there was delivered unto him the book of the prophet Esaias. And when he had opened the book, he found the place where it was written,
Luk 4:18 The Spirit of the Lord is upon me, because he hath anointed me to preach the gospel to the poor; he hath sent me to heal the brokenhearted, to preach deliverance to the captives, and recovering of sight to the blind, to set at liberty them that are bruised,
 
G

GaryA

Guest
#64
#64
I seem to be hearing these two ideas coming from the same crowd...:

~ Any other bible is just as much God's word as the KJV. :p

~ The KJV is EVIL! :mad:

What????? :confused:

Somebody needs to get their story straight...

If you believe that the KJV is God's word -- why would you say that the KJV itself has "spawned" evil - cults, etc.?

Just because the KJV is the chosen bible-of-choice of a cult -- does not mean that the KJV started the cult.

Did you ever think that Satan might want to discredit the KJV by making sure that it became closely associated [ in people's minds ] with cults, nut-jobs, etc.???

:)
 
V

Vernon

Banned
#65
Jan 6, 2014
991
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#65
The King James Bible has been called by some the greatest literary accomplishment in the english language, I do not believe however it is the only english translation ordained by God. I do usually quote it when quoting scripture on these threads because of the large number of KJV only believers on this web site. And so not to offend my brothers and sisters I normally quote from it.

I believe the person who originated this thread said it was the only translation they tried to destroy but that is not the case at all, many translations have been attacked, the Tyndale translation was viciously attacked. And it predates the KJV. Tyndale was executed before he could finish the Old Testament. The Tyndale translation heavily influenced every major english translation that followed.

That I am not a literal word of God or inerrant word of God believer in the holy scripture, I do not believe it necessary to follow one translation over another.

The only literal and inerrant Word of God is the man, Christ Jesus.
Just a thought
 
T

Tintin

Guest
#66
#66
GaryA, I don't believe the KJV Bible is evil, it's God's Word. But I believe the KJV-Onlyist movement isn't of God.
 
p_rehbein

p_rehbein

Senior Member
#67
Sep 4, 2013
30,778
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#67
.......oh, gee.......well, I thought this was gonna be like a study of Scriptures or something......not a KJV whatever thread AGAIN...........sigh......
 
KJV1611

KJV1611

Banned
#68
Nov 23, 2013
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#68
Tintin said:
GaryA, I don't believe the KJV Bible is evil, it's God's Word. But I believe the KJV-Onlyist movement isn't of God.
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I'm KJV only, does that mean I am not of God?
 
T

Tintin

Guest
#69
#69
KJV1611 said:
I'm KJV only, does that mean I am not of God?
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That's like saying, "step into this rabbit trap, it won't hurt you". I'm not going to answer that. It's not my job to judge individuals. That's between you and God.
 
KJV1611

KJV1611

Banned
#70
Nov 23, 2013
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#70
Tintin said:
That's like saying, "step into this rabbit trap, it won't hurt you". I'm not going to answer that. It's not my job to judge individuals. That's between you and God.
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That was an unfair question, I apologize.
 
G

GaryA

Guest
#71
#71
OOPS!

GaryA said:
Just because the KJV is the chosen bible-of-choice of a cult -- does not mean that the KJV started the cult.
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Just because the KJV is the bible-of-choice of a cult -- does not mean that the KJV started the cult.

:eek:
 
KJV1611

KJV1611

Banned
#72
Nov 23, 2013
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#72
Does anybody know how long the "Christian" community has believed that the inerrant word of God doesn't exist? When did this idea come about? And who came up with it?
 
p_rehbein

p_rehbein

Senior Member
#73
Sep 4, 2013
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#73
QUOTES:

Originally Posted by Tintin
GaryA, I don't believe the KJV Bible is evil, it's God's Word. But I believe the KJV-Onlyist movement isn't of God.


I'm KJV only, does that mean I am not of God?

END QUOTES:

Disclaimer: I prefer the KJV, and I enjoy reading the CJB.......

However, I do not condemn other translations as not being the Word of God. In my opinion, people that condemn all other translations are not teaching Biblical Truth. Hard to teach such, when Truth is the KJV is A TRANSLATION!

To say that only the KJV is the true Word of God is to say that God is not powerful enough to preserve His Word/Truth in other translations..............make of that what you will.............but IF someone says God isn't all powerful.............is that Biblical Truth? And WHERE in the KJV does one find Jesus saying ONLY THIS TRANSLATION is My Gospel?

 
P

phil112

Guest
#74
#74
KJV1611 said:
Any translation or so called copy of the originals that have Passover instead of Easter is wrong. Answer these two questions and you will see that Easter is the correct translation.
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Notice Acts 12:1. King Herod began to persecute the Church, culminating in the brutal death of the apostle James by sword. This pleased the Jews so much that the apostle Peter was also taken prisoner by Herod. The plan was to later deliver him to the Jews. Verse 3 says, “Then were the days of unleavened bread.” The New Testament Church was observing these feast days described in Leviticus 23. Now read verse 4: “And when he [Herod] had apprehended him, he put him in prison, and delivered him to four quaternions [sixteen] of soldiers to keep him; intending after Easter to bring him forth to the people.”
Is this Bible authority for Easter?
This passage is not talking about Easter. How do we know? The word translated Easter is the Greek word pascha (derived from the Hebrew word pesach; there is no original Greek word for Passover), and it has only one meaning. It always means Passover—it can never mean Easter! For this reason, we find a Hebrew word used in the Greek New Testament. Once again, this Hebrew word can only refer to Passover. And other translations, including the Revised Standard Version, correctly render this word Passover.
Instead of endorsing Easter, this verse really proves that the Church was still observing the supposedly Jewish Passover ten years after the death of Christ!

Early Christians kept the Passover, not Easter. Notice this from the Encyclopedia Britannica, 11th edit., Vol. 8, p. 828: “There is no indication of the observance of the Easter festival in the New Testament, or in the writings of the Apostolic Fathers…The first Christians continued to observe the Jewish festivals [God’s festivals of Leviticus 23], though in a new spirit, as commemorations of events which those festivals had foreshadowed. Thus the Passover, with a new conception added to it, of Christ as the true Paschal Lamb…continued to be observed.”
The original apostles and early New Testament Church did not observe Easter. Notice: “In the second century A.D., Easter Day was, among Christians in Asia Minor [these would be the Gentile churches that Paul raised up in places such as Philippi, Colossae, Galatia, etc.—and he warned the Galatians (4:9-10) about taking days such as Easter] the 14th of Nisan [or Abib] the seventh month of the [civil] Jewish calendar” (World Almanac, 1968 edit., p. 187). The date described here is not Easter Day, but rather the Passover—which was kept on the 14th day of the first month (Nisan) of the sacred calendar. The apostles and early Church did not observe Easter!

“Easter—the name Easter comes to us from Ostera or Eostre, the Anglo-Saxon goddess of spring, for whom a spring festival was held annually, as it is from this pagan festival that some of our Easter customs have come”
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The True Origin of Easter
 
D

DorothyG

Guest
#76
#76
Blind guides! You strain your water so you won’t accidentally swallow a gnat, but you swallow a camel! (Matthew 23:24 NLT)
 
R

RachelBibleStudent

Guest
#77
#77
GaryA said:
If you believe that the KJV is God's word -- why would you say that the KJV itself has "spawned" evil - cults, etc.?

Just because the KJV is the chosen bible-of-choice of a cult -- does not mean that the KJV started the cult.

Did you ever think that Satan might want to discredit the KJV by making sure that it became closely associated [ in people's minds ] with cults, nut-jobs, etc.???
Click to expand...
well it seems that the KJV is a favorite of cults because the archaic and harder to understand language makes it easier to distort and mislead people with...

i have seen doctrines taught from the KJV that people in king james' time would have seen as laughable...but people nowdays fall for it because they don't understand the english...
 
R

RachelBibleStudent

Guest
#78
#78
KJV1611 said:
Does anybody know how long the "Christian" community has believed that the inerrant word of God doesn't exist? When did this idea come about? And who came up with it?
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what you -should- be asking is how long 'christians' have believed that only one bible translation could be the inerrant word of God...it isn't very long in fact...
 
R

RachelBibleStudent

Guest
#79
#79
KJV1611 said:
So Passover had just passed and they were in the days of unleavened bread, so they were going to wait until Passover of the next year to take Peter before the people. Is that what you believe?
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passover and the feast of unleavened bread were often considered to be the same thing...there are examples in scripture where the names are used interchangeably...
 
KJV1611

KJV1611

Banned
#80
Nov 23, 2013
13,684
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#80
RachelBibleStudent said:
what you -should- be asking is how long 'christians' have believed that only one bible translation could be the inerrant word of God...it isn't very long in fact...
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How is it possible that 2 bibles that say different things can both be the inerrant word of God?
 
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