What you call "the Mosaic laws" were those given by God---through Moses. The ceremonial portion the blood ordinances, circumcision ritual, etc. is obviously not obligatory in the New Covenant. The other portion, the moral law ("the Law of the Lord") is. If it were not, why would John write, "...sin is the transgression of the law" (1 John 3:4)? Why danschance, will you never answer this question? Why, instead, do you dogmatically cling to the verses you repeat out of context?
And you refer to "Jewish laws," as though the Law of the Lord pertained to the Judah portion only of Israel. Are you ignorant of the fact that when the Law of the Lord was given there where no Jews, that "Jew" identifies the Judah portion only of Israel only. This ignorance, of the distinction between Judah and Israel, is the root of most false doctrine today, yours, obviously, included.
And you refer to "Jewish laws," as though the Law of the Lord pertained to the Judah portion only of Israel. Are you ignorant of the fact that when the Law of the Lord was given there where no Jews, that "Jew" identifies the Judah portion only of Israel only. This ignorance, of the distinction between Judah and Israel, is the root of most false doctrine today, yours, obviously, included.
6 Jesus saith unto him, I am the way, the truth, and the life: no man cometh unto the Father, but by me.
nothing else but him.
John 3:5
Jesus answered, Verily, verily, I say unto thee, Except a man be born of water and of the Spirit, he cannot enter into the kingdom of God.