No, they were alive before the Law because they were not immediately judged or killed the moment they broke the Law. For tbe Law was added because of transgressions. Meaning sin had gotten so bad that God needed to stop or minimize the sin in their lives with the written Law.
Abiding in the Spirit of life of Jesus Christ is not failing to trust Christ. In fact abiding in His Spirit and walking in His ways is what genuine faith is all about. Faith is not a mental abstraction and salvation is not some abstract package. Faith and salvation are both manifest realities in a believers life.
would still like your view on heart purity in the salvation experience.
Or is that a foreign subject to you?
In other words,
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[TD]"Whosoever committeth sin transgresseth also the law: for sin is the transgression of the law."
(1 John 3:4).
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So seeing John believed Christians could still sin (1 John 2:1) (1 John 1:9), means that we can still break God's laws. For when the Scriptures say that we are not under the Law, it is talking about the Law of Moses and not all Law in general. For obviously all believers can still transgress the Law. To put it to you another way, how can you transgress that thing which does not exist? In other words, what John is saying that the Law of Moses is gone and we are now under the Law of Christ (Galatians 6:2) or the Law of the Spirit of Life in Christ Jesus (Romans 8:2). For even Revelation ends with telling you to keep God's commandments (Revelation 22:14).
Oh, and there was an Oral Law before the Written Law. How do we know? Joseph said that he could have sinned before God.
"There is none greater in this house than I; neither hath he kept back any thing from me but thee, because thou art his wife: how then can I do this great wickedness, and sin against God?" (Genesis 39:9).
Well Jason, it is notable that Gen 39:9 says nothing about any "oral law." Men had conscience. No doubt parents taught moral precepts orally. But this was not the infallible word of God. So I don't know how you could call that "oral law." I suppose that men had various standards of morality, varying in accuracy, like in the Book of the Dead & the Code of Hambone.
Really, I think you need scriptural proof for this one, & probably give it up for lack of proof.
Was Paul talking to Gentile Christians? Well, techncally the people he was writing to were not Gentile Christians because the Gentiles did not know the Law. However, Paul's written message here was to help both Jew and the Gentile to understand the struggle a person has in trying to keep the Law without being spiritually regenerated by Jesus Christ.
Besides, Paul tells you who his audience is from the start of Romans 7.
"Know ye not, brethren, (for I speak to them that know the law,)" (Romans 7:1).
No, they were alive before the Law because they were not immediately judged or killed the moment they broke the Law.
Meaning sin had gotten so bad that God needed to stop or minimize the sin in their lives with the written Law.[/QUOTE]For tbe Law was added because of transgressions.
Afternoon Jason, I hope you are finding them golden fleas.
I don't read the King Jimmy much, and the ASV (1901) runs that quite differently. Actually neither "law" nor "the law" occurs in that verse. And the KJV gives a poor translation here.
Πᾶς ὁ ποιῶν τὴν ἁμαρτίαν καὶ τὴν ἀνομίαν ποιεῖ, καὶ ἡ ἁμαρτία ἐστὶν ἡ ἀνομία.
Every one that doeth sin doeth also lawlessness; and sin is lawlessness. (ASV).
Πᾶς ὁ ποιῶν τὴν ἁμαρτίαν = Everyone doing (the) sin
καὶ τὴν ἀνομίαν ποιεῖ = also (the) lawlessness does.
καὶ ἡ ἁμαρτία ἐστὶν ἡ ἀνομία. = and (the) sin is (the) lawlessness.
It seems to me when the topic is flubbing at the Christian life by being a legalist,
the problem is not specifically limited to the Law of Moses. It could be the law in the conscience, the Teachings of Jesus, or the commandments in the epistles to the Church. It is wrong to accept the Law of Moses as one's standard of conduct; it ended at the cross. It is also wrong to not obey the commandments given us by the Lord. And some of the Law of Moses is of universal application (like Love God, & Love neighbor).
ἀνομία is a sin, rejecting whatever standards the Lord has given us to obey, rejecting the Lordship of Christ.
a = not; nom- = root for law.
Having said that, no commandment has the power to cause obedience; it is like a sign that says "Don't spit here," on its own.
The primary source of standards for Christians is in Acts & the Epistles. Even the Teachings of Jesus & much of the gospels were given under the Law & in the context of the Kingdom announcement (Repent for the KoG is at hand.) Will you only own 1 coat? Will you follow the missionary rules of Mat 10?
But so far as Romans 7 is concerned, the specific command is "Thou shalt not lust/covet," which is still valid today. To me the argument in Rom 7 has nothing to do with the dispensational Law of Moses.
As for the Greek, my guess is that you don't really know what the Kione Greek is saying because Modern Greek is not your native tongue. In other words, that would be like me putting my faith in someone claiming they know 1600's Old English without them knowing Modern English. For people have a hard enough time reading their Bible in English. Now you want to complicate it even more by thinking you know Greek when you really don't know Greek?
Jason, ad hominem is logical fallacy.
I have a master's degree in Greek; but don't take my word for it; check it out yourself in a Greek interlinear -- I think Biblehub.com has one.
There is no such thing as "Kione Greek." You don't know what my native tongue is, so why go on about it? Modern Greek is also irrelevant (I took Modern Greek also in a university). You may as well try to define Latin by Italian.
Compare translations also if you wish.
The Old Testament Law has been fulfilled in Jesus Christ and has been replaced with the Law of Christ (Galatians 6:2) or the Law of the Spirit of life in Christ Jesus (Romans 8:2) within the New Testament. In other words, there are still Laws or Commands in the New Testament.
Yes, we have commandments which should be opportunities for the Christian to show love for the Savior.
As to "The Law of Christ,"
Bear ye one another’s burdens, and so fulfil the law of Christ;
I haven't given that one much study, but I don't think it means a code of laws; I am more inclined to think it refers to a special rule that Christ emphasized, like "Do unto others . . . ."
"the Law of the Spirit of Life in Christ Jesus, probably means principle . . . ."
To Israel, God gave laws; to the Church God wrote letters.
Romans 7 is still valid because it is part of the Bible written specifically to the Church, & it describes the carnal state of the Christian, something we are all prone to get into.
Jason, ad hominem is logical fallacy.
I have a master's degree in Greek; but don't take my word for it; check it out yourself in a Greek interlinear -- I think Biblehub.com has one.
There is no such thing as "Kione Greek." You don't know what my native tongue is, so why go on about it? Modern Greek is also irrelevant (I took Modern Greek also in a university). You may as well try to define Latin by Italian.
Compare translations also if you wish.
"Kione", common, Gk.
The NASB and the NKJB are both excellent.
What do you think of the Greek in the LXX. written 280 years before Christ.? The LXX is a great, Greek translation of the Hebrew Old Testament.
"1050 New Testament Commands."
we are saved by Jesus Christ when we repent of our sins and accept Him as our Savior.