Did God Tell Hosea to Marry a Prostitute?

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posthuman

Senior Member
Jul 31, 2013
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However, marriage has always been a sacred thing to God. It always represented one faithful man and one faithful woman.
did God tell Hosea to marry several women of whoredom, or just one? did He instruct Hosea or Gomer to be unfaithful?

did Jesus say you must divorce a woman who was unfaithful, or that Moses allowed them to because their hearts were hardened?
 
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kennethcadwell

Guest
You have to understand that there is a huge difference between God commanding His people to eliminate those who were a threat to them both physically and spiritually and one selfishly taken another person's life for their motives. See, in the Old Testament, God primarily needed to show us that He was God who would reward those who were good and to punish those who were evil. See. Back then God wanted to show that he was a God of justice and righteousness. For can you imagine what kind of evil world we would be living in if God did not stop the evils in this world to spread?

However, marriage has always been a sacred thing to God. It always represented one faithful man and one faithful woman. Jesus even spoke about Biblical marriage was between one man and one woman. If one of those in the relationship was not monogamous, then that would destroy the picture Jesus was trying to make. The KJV says a wife of whoredoms. Plural. The letter "s" at the end lets us know the word is plural. So she is not a wife of prostitutes. She is a wife of a people of a land who had a spirit of prostitution. Meaning, the people of the land depared from the Lord by going after other gods. Whoredoms. Idolatry. This is all in the book of Hosea. Besides, if you believe Hosea was told by God to marry a prostitute, then surely there should be another verse that suggests this. For Scripture always testifies of itself by 2 or 3 witnesses (I.e. cross references).

Yet the woman that Hosea was told to marry was not faithful to God.

She was a part of those who did not follow God, but followed her own desires
 
Jul 22, 2014
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Also, I wanted to add: Although I believe Jesus teaches believers to be Pacifists currently today under the NT (Except when we will return with Him at His 2nd Coming), it was not wrong for the nation of Israel to protect itself from enemies that were dark, sinful, and destructive. This is a huge difference between taking another life of our own choosing for selfish reasons.
 
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Yet the woman that Hosea was told to marry was not faithful to God.

She was a part of those who did not follow God, but followed her own desires
I have faith. Faith that God is good. Faith in the New Testament passages that say we are not to be unevenly yoked together with unbelievers. Faith. Faith in God's Word. Faith in what it actually says. I also know: God's righteousness is so much higher than our righteousness. He is pure and holy. And no action of the Lord is ever in question of being immoral or in contradiction.

Also, if you believe God told Hosea to marry an unbeliever, then what other passage besides Hosea 1:2 says this? How do you reconcile 2 Corinthians 6?
 
Jul 22, 2014
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In other words, can you explain the morals of how we are not supposed to marry unbelievers in the NT and yet it was okay in the OT?
 
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Hoffco

Guest
Anyone who knows the Old Testament, knows that God's standard for sexual morals were not as high as they are in the New Testament. God never batted an eye when Abraham took Hagar, and Jacob ended up with 4 women in bed with him, and David had hundreds of wife, God even said He would have give David more wives, that David didn't have to steal a wife. Jason, your tunnel vision is stupid. Love Hoffco
 

IDEAtor

Senior Member
Aug 15, 2012
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Jason,

we're trying to understand 'your logic' here.

if YOUR parents were say, one a thief, and the other a murderer,
would that make yourself one or the other as well?

sometimes this can be true, but other times this is absolutely false.
The above comment reminds me of Ezekiel 18.
 

Nick01

Senior Member
Jul 15, 2013
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Jason, if I didn't know better, I'd say you were ignoring my posts :)

Just in case you'd lost track of them there's this one on the arguments from Ridenour, God pursuing faitfhless ISrael vs Hosea pursuing faithless Gomer, the idea of God involving himself with sinful people generally, and the use of the word whoredoms in the Old Testament. There is also this post that refers to how the fathers and other ancient commentators read the text. You technically replied to that post, but didn't actually respond to anything of substance that I actually put in there, so it would be nice if you revisited it again.
 
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Kerry

Guest
Well he did didn't he, Just as God chose the prostitute of Israel.
 

Nick01

Senior Member
Jul 15, 2013
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Sorry, the post on ancient commentators is actually here
 
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Fishbait

Guest
Uh huh. So why can't explain the morality behind God telling Hosea to marry a prostitute?
Can you answer your question? Maybe you can 'enlighten' us with the answer. Or do you just enjoy stirring up the pot by challenging other Christians with a question you yourself don't know the answer to but claim to want to know?

Or sould we heed God's warning when we come across a person that stirs up 'division' amongest us?

"As for a person who stirs up division, after warning him once and then twice, have nothing more to do with him," - Titus 3:10

 

SolidGround

Senior Member
Jan 15, 2014
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Where does the Old Testament that marrying a prostitute is against the Law?
Only for Levitical priests.

In the NT, we are made priests, with Christ as our High Priest.
Was Hosea a priest? No.
So unlike us today, Hosea was free to marry any woman of Israel.
It is not immoral to marry a prostitute. It is unwise in general,
But if God tells a man to do so, then it is for good.

The ways of God are foolishness to the unspiritual mind.
 
Jul 22, 2014
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Jason, if I didn't know better, I'd say you were ignoring my posts :)

Just in case you'd lost track of them there's this one on the arguments from Ridenour, God pursuing faitfhless ISrael vs Hosea pursuing faithless Gomer, the idea of God involving himself with sinful people generally, and the use of the word whoredoms in the Old Testament. There is also this post that refers to how the fathers and other ancient commentators read the text. You technically replied to that post, but didn't actually respond to anything of substance that I actually put in there, so it would be nice if you revisited it again.
I read one of your major posts within this thread. I was going to reply to it but I realized that nothing I would really present to you would matter. In your mind, God told Hosea to marry a prostitute. There is no changing that idea for you. Neither Scripture nor morality will alter your locked interpretation on this passage. Also, seeing you nor anyone else here did not really reply to my answer on how it is moral and good for God to tell Hosea to marry a prostitute, it is only fair that I don't reply (at my discretion), as well.
 
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kennethcadwell

Guest
I have faith. Faith that God is good. Faith in the New Testament passages that say we are not to be unevenly yoked together with unbelievers. Faith. Faith in God's Word. Faith in what it actually says. I also know: God's righteousness is so much higher than our righteousness. He is pure and holy. And no action of the Lord is ever in question of being immoral or in contradiction.

Also, if you believe God told Hosea to marry an unbeliever, then what other passage besides Hosea 1:2 says this? How do you reconcile 2 Corinthians 6?
The thing is though even as a non-believer God would have known that Hosea would be able to persuade her to become a believer.

How does one go from being a non-believer to a believer if we sit back and do nothing ?

Not being equally yoked with them means not to support and share in their sins.

We are to sit down and talk to them and win them over to Christ, and God knows how things will play out and therefore allows things that we may not comprehend because it works to His will, not our will or understanding.

Example: I was looking at a free course to be ordained as a minister, I dropped out of it and turned down the certificate of ordination from that group because I found out they supported same sex marriage.

I did not want to be associated with that group do to that.
 

SolidGround

Senior Member
Jan 15, 2014
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I read one of your major posts within this thread. I was going to reply to it but I realized that nothing I would really present to you would matter. In your mind, God told Hosea to marry a prostitute. There is no changing that idea for you. Neither Scripture nor morality will alter your locked interpretation on this passage. Also, seeing you nor anyone else here did not really reply to my answer on how it is moral and good for God to tell Hosea to marry a prostitute, it is only fair that I don't reply (at my discretion), as well.
I answered you several times, yet you ignore it.
It is not immoral to marry a prostitute in the OT.

In fact, if a man slipped up and slept with a prostitute, that man could redeem his sin by marrying her.
 
Jul 22, 2014
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Where does the Old Testament that marrying a prostitute is against the Law?
Only for Levitical priests.

In the NT, we are made priests, with Christ as our High Priest.
Was Hosea a priest? No.
So unlike us today, Hosea was free to marry any woman of Israel.
It is not immoral to marry a prostitute. It is unwise in general,
But if God tells a man to do so, then it is for good.

The ways of God are foolishness to the unspiritual mind.
Look. I already said Rahab married an Israelïte. But she was not a practicing prostitute when she married. Neither was Gomer a practicing prostitute when she married Hosea. She was a virgin when they married. Hosea 5 talks about the israelïtes having a spirit of prostitution. Hosea 3 talks about how they went after other gods. This is the context of Gomer being a wife of a people that committed whoredoms or in chasing after other gods. There is no other verse that supports your interpretation that Gomer was a prostitute when she married Hosea. None. Yet, I have shown you verses that suggest strongly that this was not the case.
 
Jul 22, 2014
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I answered you several times, yet you ignore it.
It is not immoral to marry a prostitute in the OT.

In fact, if a man slipped up and slept with a prostitute, that man could redeem his sin by marrying her.
Verses please.
 
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kennethcadwell

Guest
Where does the Old Testament that marrying a prostitute is against the Law?
Only for Levitical priests.

In the NT, we are made priests, with Christ as our High Priest.
Was Hosea a priest? No.
So unlike us today, Hosea was free to marry any woman of Israel.
It is not immoral to marry a prostitute. It is unwise in general,
But if God tells a man to do so, then it is for good.

The ways of God are foolishness to the unspiritual mind.
Exactly, and here is one for you for example;

In the OT they were told by God to refrain from eating certain animals because they were unclean.

Then in the NT testament our Lord shows Peter all the unclean animals and tells him to eat of them.
Peter contends with him at first saying no because they were unclean, Lord tells him to not call anything unclean for He has sanctified it.

The Lord our God cleanses and sanctifies what He will for His purpose.
 

SolidGround

Senior Member
Jan 15, 2014
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Here is one: Duet 22:28

Now you show me where in the OT it is unlawful to wed a prostitute.

How about marrying a woman who has not repented of gossip?



What proof can be given to the young fool?
He is too wise in his own eyes to heed correction.


Also, none of your verses have dealt with the topic.
You have not even one verse that shows that God did not tell Hosea to marry a prostitute,
or that she had to be repentant to be married, not yet a prostitute, or even a virgin.
Your words are like a dry wind. They chafe, but have no substance.
 
Jul 22, 2014
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Exactly, and here is one for you for example;

In the OT they were told by God to refrain from eating certain animals because they were unclean.

Then in the NT testament our Lord shows Peter all the unclean animals and tells him to eat of them.
Peter contends with him at first saying no because they were unclean, Lord tells him to not call anything unclean for He has sanctified it.

The Lord our God cleanses and sanctifies what He will for His purpose.
God was able to say this to Peter because Jesus fulfilled the OT Law of Moses with His death upon the cross. For it is why the Temple veil was torn. In other words, God cannot break His own Word. For He fulfilled the Law and started a New Covenant by his blood.