I already provided this to you yesterday, in a separate thread, but you ignored it completely...
He was in the world, and the world came into being through Him, yet the world did not know Him. He came to His own, and His own did not receive Him. But as many as received Him, to them He gave authority to become children of God, to the ones believing into His name, who were born not of blood, nor of the will of the flesh, nor of the will of man, but were born of God. And the Word became flesh and tabernacled among us. And we beheld His glory, glory as of an only begotten from the Father, full of grace and of truth. John witnesses concerning Him, and has cried out, saying, This One was He of whom I said, He coming after me has been before me, for He was preceding me. And out of His fullness we all received, and grace on top of grace. For the Law was given through Moses, but grace and truth came through Jesus Christ. No one has seen God at any time; the unique God, who is in the bosom of the Father, that One declares Him.(John 1.10 – 18)
Scripture clearly informs the reader that the Word occupied flesh when He was in the world and that He was beheld as The Glory of God.
That the second person of the Trinity occupied flesh before being born of a woman and being referred to as God The Son, is made crystal clear by John’s proclamation that ‘He coming after me has been before me, for He was preceding me’.This is a full admission that The Son was manifest both before John’s time and after John’s time.
Okay, let's look at the verse again.
"He coming after me has been before me, for he was preceding me,"
Please note that this passage does not say Jesus was before John in the flesh. Like I said before it is merely saying that Christ or the Living Word existed as Spirit before John.
For in this passage, John is merely talking about existence.
He coming after me
[Jesus being born in the flesh] has been before me
[John's birth], for he
[Christ or the Word] was preceding me,
[John].
For if you will notice, another passage says that
"
John witnesses concerning Him."
How did John witness Jesus?
Well, when Mary came to visit Elizabeth, John the Baptist as a baby inside Elizabeth had tumbled for joy within her womb.
John also forerunnered Jesus' ministery by baptizing Him, as well (Bearing witness before God the Father, Himself (the Son), and the Holy Spirit) before men.
Let's look at the other passage.
"No man hath seen God at any time; the only begotten Son, which is in the bosom of the Father, he hath declared him."
"No one has seen God at any time:"
So how can nobody see God at any time and yet Christ existed as God or the Son before His physical birth?
The first half of the passage is talking about God the Father and not God the Son. It is saying, no man has seen God the Father at any time, the only begotton Son (i.e. God the Son), which is in the bosom of the Father, He (Christ) has declared him.
Nowhere does this passage say that He was flesh before either.
I believe it's possible that God could have made a spiritual body similar to an angel so as to react with our phsyical world or He could do anything He wants because He is God. Anyways, angels have been reported as being able to touch this physical world. For example: Demons can actually effect a person physically and manifest their evil appearance thru the body of a person. They are touching an effecting the physical world. People have gotten scars or scratches from demons. These are fallen angels. It's why Nephilim existed before and after the flood. It's why Christ and the two other angels were able to eat food before Abraham in Genesis 18:8.
Anyways, the verse you provided is too ambidgous and not clear. It doesn't specifically say Christ was flesh before his physical birth thru Mary. You need a verse that says something like, "
before he was born into this world thru Adam, he also was flesh before that."
Plus, the Bible testifies of itself with more than one verse or witness. One-verse-ism is a dangerous way of building a Theology or Truth within the Scriptures. In other words, if what you say is true, then there should be at least several verses or witnesses in Scripture telling us that Christ was in the flesh before he was born thru Mary.
