I do understand a desire to hold fast to your beliefs no matter what. But you do not answer the inconsistencies of your chosen views and scripture. Why no adultery for David until wife 7? Why no adultery for Solomon at all? Why no sexual sin for Solomon ... at all? Why no statements about his wicked lust anywhere in scripture? Was masturbation unheard of in bible times and therefore not mentioned? Is it something new to this century? The question isn't whether you can believe whatever you want. Anyone can. The question is, what fits with the fullness of scripture with all of it cut straight so that everything fits with everything else. I understand the modern definitions of the word lust. I understand the modern definitions of the word adultery. I understand that those meanings are not consistent with the meanings of those words in modern English.
What kind of touching is involved in 1 Cor. 7:1. Look at the next verse. What does this "touching" lead to? Why is it that it is better to get married if this is going on? To avoid fornication (Illicit intercourse), right? According to the passage it is better to remain single than to get married UNLESS this is an issue. Also, according to the passage, even setting aside time for prayer, is not an excuse not to engage in sexual intercourse anytime EITHER spouse desires it. Lust, the evil thing you are referring to, does not apply in marriage. (Could be why Solomon was never mentioned with regards to the issue. Just a thought.) There some passages that pertain to divorce etc. that follow and then Paul jumps in again.
1Co 7:36 But if any man thinks that he is acting unbecomingly toward his virgin daughter, if she is past her youth, and if it must be so, let him do what he wishes, he does not sin; let her marry.
Some points. First off, at what point are the two individuals as of verse 1 in the passage? What is the reason to get married in verse 2? Is lust evil, even full indulgence of it as of verse 3, IF YOU ARE MARRIED? What is the reason for getting married in verse 36? Does this tie in with verse 1? DO THEY SIN IF THEY GET MARRIED FOR THIS REASON? According to the definition that is consistent throughout scripture, has anyone committed fornication at the point of verse 1? If you are to the point of acting unbecomingly, but have not committed fornication, HAVE YOU SINNED ACCORDING TO SCRIPTURE? Look at the next verse:
1Co 7:37 But he who stands firm in his heart, being under no constraint, but has authority over his own will, and has decided this in his own heart, to keep his own virgin daughter, he will do well.
In other words, if you can control yourself, and not put yourself in danger of "fornication", and there is no risk of it, and you aren't in the position of verse #1 in this passage, it is better to remain single and avoid this altogether. Otherwise, marriage is the way to go. Oops, forgot a verse. No one's perfect. One more:
1Co 7:9 But if they do not have self-control, let them marry; for it is better to marry than to burn with passion.
Sorry, two more:
1Co 7:28 But if you marry, you have not sinned; and if a virgin marries, she has not sinned. Yet such will have trouble in this life, and I am trying to spare you.
The point is, again, if you can control yourself, and not get to the point where you are touching in such a way that it leads to fornication, GREAT. Avoid marriage. Otherwise, it is better to get married than to risk fornication. The important part is the point at which people sin. When you are at the point where you "risk" fornication you are to get married. Has anyone sinned at this point? Not in accordance with feelings, or opinions, or beliefs ... in accordance with the meaning of scripture. Have you sinned if you are doing things for which, if you do not get married, you will commit fornication, ACCORDING TO SCRIPTURE, and you get married for those reasons?
1Co 7:36 But if any man thinks that he is acting unbecomingly toward his virgin daughter, if she is past her youth, and if it must be so, let him do what he wishes, he does not sin; let her marry.
Yes, there are other things that apply. You have no business spending ANY time with ANYONE who is not a Christian. Yes, EVERYONE should seek to remain single, but not everyone has that gift. Yes, there is a "Gift" of singleness, and there is, another gift, the gift of the need to get married because you have issues with self-control with regards to sex and will commit fornication if you don't:
1Co 7:7 Yet I wish that all men were even as I myself am. However, each man has his own gift from God, one in this manner, and another in that.
Again, the issue isn't whether or not we can believe anything we want and try and find justification for it. The issue is what fits with everything that is written, everything that was done, everything that God didn't say anything about and did not correct, EVERYTHING without leaving anything out, without making God, Christ, godly men ... completely inconsistent ... I understand that what I am saying is not popular and that people will close their eyes and ears to anything that doesn't fit with their "modern" views. That's not the point. I produce scriptures. I ask questions and ask you to explain about the lack of reproof of David for his first wives, the lack of reproof of Solomon when he is not only looking at a thousand naked women, and not only touching them sexually, but actually sleeping with them and having kids with them. I know you don't want to look or consider that your beliefs might be off. But the truth ... which view makes God 100% consistent? Which view allows God to be the one who gave David his wives, even the wives of his enemies AND NOT SIN?
The bible talks about those with closed eyes and ears. The bible talks about those with a zeal for God, but not in accordance with knowledge, those that merely seek out justification for their beliefs, but are unwilling to subject themselves to the truth of all that the word of God says and means.
If you have scriptures that prove your view does not make God completely inconsistent, does not make God a sinner by providing David with multiple wives, that proves that God did not make commandments governing the taking of additional wives ... share the scriptures, and without altering the meaning of the passages I being up, from the context in which they are found, show how God consistently upheld your modern definitions of these words and terms. I am open to altering my views in the light of ALL that the word of God says and means, in such a way that it makes God consistent even if it prove me, or all of you, out to be liars. ALL of it, cut-straight so everything fits. I honestly see no other way that all of the things God, and the godly, did and didn't do fits with everything else. SHOW ME.
And no, we should just know that everything pertaining to lust is evil, even though God never said anything, never reproved anybody ... doesn't cut it. By that mode of reasoning I can name anything I want to be evil and simply claim that you should know it is, redefine any words in scripture that I want to mean anything I want, and take that as an end of argument. Please hold to a meaning that fits everywhere that the same words, and root words are used throughout the scriptures. Thanks.