Elin,
Yes, because of their guilt of Adam's sin.
There is not a single human being that every suffered the guilt of Adam's sin. Only Adam could so suffer, just like your suffer from the guilt of your own sin. Man does not share sin. Sin is an individual act of a person against God's will. It cannot be transferred.
The NT usage of "condemnation" is the judgment of God's wrath to eternal death (Jn 3:36, 18).
that depends on the context. However, texts such as Rom 11:32, Rom 5:12, Rom 5:18, I Cor 15:22, all are dealing with the death that Christ needed to overcome due to Adam. John 3:36,18 are not even possible unless Christ first overcame the condemnation of death of Adam. Man cannot be condemned twice and as long as man dies and returns to dust, which is the condemnation of death through Adam, there is not other condemnation even possible. Unless you think a pile of dust can suffer some kind of condemnation.
To repeat, eternal death is no eternal life of God in one's spirit, God's enemy, separation from God, under his wrath (Ro 5:9).
again irrelevant to the subject matter. See above comment.
If it is only physical death, then both the believer and the unbeliever suffer the same condemnation.
Don't think so.
AH, yes, I believe that is exactly what Satan did to man when he took man captive. All men would die, return to dust from whence they came. Christ came to overturn, to correct that condemnation of death to all men. Does not I Cor 15:22 say that ALL MEN DIE THROUGH ADAM? `Did not Paul say that the condemnation of death was passed to all men in Rom 5:12?
Does it not say in Heb 2:9 that Christ tasted death for EVERYONE? Does it not say in Heb 2:14-17 that Satan controls this world through the power of death, the death that Christ defeated by His resurrection? Resurrection means life. form mortal to immortal. Does it not say also that ALL men shall be raised to life because Christ arose from the dead?
You are on an entirely different wave length here. You are bypassing the whole work of Christ as if He never existed, never was Incarnated, never rose from the dead with our mortal natures to give them life.
Your whole view is premised on some guilt of Adam and faith grants everything to a believer only.
Yes, in context Paul is saying that death proves that all men are personally guilty of sin.
it is the other way around. All men are mortal, (were condemned to death, non existence, dust to dust) and it is because of this state of death (mortality) that man sins I Cor 15:56. You seem to have everything backwards.
But what personal guilt of sin caused men to die between Adam and Moses
when there was no law to transgress and, therefore, sin was not taken into account
(i.e., men were not guilty)?
None, there is no such thing as common guilt. Man was mortal, which is why men died. It is why a fetus can die. A fetus does not die because it sinned, or has some guilt. A fetus cannot sin, so there can be no guilt anyway.
Ro 5:12-21:
Sin is transgression of the law.
Where there is no law, there is no transgression and, therefore,
no death because of the sin of transgression.
But all died between Adam and Moses when there was no law to transgress
and, therefore, sin was not taken into account.
So based on what personal guilt of sin did they die?
On their personal guilt of Adam's sin.
Hardly. They died because they were mortal. Death is what is passed on. All human are born mortal, a state of death. Gen 3:19, Rom 5:12, and others.
There is never any mention of guilt or sin being passed on. Both are an impossiblity and only a false supposition would make such a blunder.
Makin' it up as you go. . .
Tell that to the Court when the judge declares the criminal guilty.
You could use a good dictionary.
Wow, so you really believe that if a person is declared guilty by anyone that he has to feel guilty? Have you ever heard of no remorse,(guilt). Guilty and guilt are two different words and meaning. Neither one is applicable here anyway.
The Greek text of Ro 5:18 does not state the life was given to all men.
It simply states "life to all men," which is the universal offer of life to all men.
so you believe that man has a choice in whether he will be resurrected from the dead. Where is that supported in scirpture? You are quite good at sematics as well. There is NO difference in meaning in your two phrases. There is no offer. In vs 15 and 16 tells us quite clearly it is a gift. It is God's great love, grace and mercy to His creation. It is universally given to all men and the world. Man has nothing to do with it. Man has nothing to do with what Christ accomplished by His Incarnation and resurrection if defeating death, sin and the devil. You need to go back to basics of salvation. You need to study what Christ acomplished and how He accomplished it and for what reason. You seem to have missed the whole thing.
