PAGANIZATION OF THE CHURCH....Easter vs Resurrection Sunday

[prove-all]

every church buildings today, pews are facing the early sun rise, why ?

the leaders have there backs to God, and worshiping the sun , not the creater.

the judge stars at the pastors first , and more harsh.

 

[john832]

As a matter of fact in ancient Israel day length was not precisely 24 hours; but varied as much as 3 hours between solstices. However it averaged 24 hours.

Not sure I understand what you mean here.

 

[MarcR]

Don't know if this has already been said -- and it probably has been, so my apologies, but worth reiterating -- Easter, or Resurrection Sunday, is always the Sunday after Passover.

As for Easter being called "Paschal," Marc, never. That is the Greek word pasca (Pascha), meaning the paschal feast, the feast of the Passover, extending from the 14th to the 20th day of the month Nisan, by the Hebrew Calendar, which is a lunar calender, the New Moon marking the first of the month.

Sorry I thought i wrote Pascah πασχὰ would sound like Pascah in English.

 

[MarcR]

Don't know if this has already been said -- and it probably has been, so my apologies, but worth reiterating -- Easter, or Resurrection Sunday, is always the Sunday after Passover.

As for Easter being called "Paschal," Marc, never. That is the Greek word pasca (Pascha), meaning the paschal feast, the feast of the Passover, extending from the 14th to the 20th day of the month Nisan, by the Hebrew Calendar, which is a lunar calender, the New Moon marking the first of the month.

Easter is ALWAYS the Sunday following the first full moon after the equinox. Solar years have 365 days while lunar years have 354 days. Odd months have 30 days even months have 29.

Passover is ALWAYS the 14th of Abib.

Seven times in 19 years a second month of adar is added as a leap year so that the seasons stay in the same months.

2 or 3 times every 19 years the Sunday after Passover will coincide with Easter as it does this year.

 

[prove-all]

The motivation for the reform was to bring the date for the celebration of Easter
to the time of the year in which the First Council of Nicaea had agreed upon in 325.

Roman calendar - Wikipedia, the free encyclopedia

by Julius Caesar in 46 BC, was a reform of the Roman calendar.
Julian calendar - Wikipedia, the free encyclopedia


Gregorian calendar - Wikipedia, the free encyclopedia
The current calendar was a refinement in 1582 to the Julian calendar

Because the celebration of Easter was tied to the spring equinox,
the Roman Catholic Church considered this steady drift in the date of Easter undesirable

General Roman Calendar - Wikipedia, the free encyclopedia

- they did not want nothing to do Gods days and changed them like the bible tells us so.

 

[MarcR]

Many implications derived from Scripture are arguable because they are legitimately subject to various interpretations.

Facts are not arguable because that is the nature of facts.

 

[prove-all]

Many implications derived from Scripture are arguable because they are legitimately subject to various interpretations.

Facts are not arguable because that is the nature of facts.

is that a fact ?

lol

sorry i just had to joke

 

[AdamWp]

Easter is what you make it. For me, it's the celebration of Christ's victory over death, hell and satan.

I like your point of view.

Every day is Gods. Pagan methods have no power. Elijah did a pretty good job of showing that.

 

[dcontroversal]

For sure the one word translated Easter in the bible is the word Passover.......

 

[MarcR]

Yes, but this particular phrase was not a Hebrew idiom...

Mat 12:40 For as Jonah was three days and three nights in the belly of the great fish, so will the Son of Man be three days and three nights in the heart of the earth.

and Christ knew exactly how long a day and a night were (He created them)...

Joh 11:9 Jesus answered, "Are there not twelve hours in the day? If anyone walks in the day, he does not stumble, because he sees the light of this world.
Joh 11:10 But if one walks in the night, he stumbles, because the light is not in him."

john,

the reference to Jonah is in the same idiom.

While Matthew wrote his Gospel in Greek, to reach a wider audience, his Gospel (more than any other) has many Hebraisms; and, his Greek is clumsy and has Aramaic idiom imposed upon it in many places. The Hebrew and Aramaic languages were well established before Jesus spoke them on earth. Jesus surely realized that if He wanted to be understood; He had to use words in the same way they were used by His audience (unless He purposefully redefined them [as He often did]).

 

[prove-all]

The answer is in the word of God:

Amo 5:21 I hate, I despise your feast days, and I will not smell (accept) in your solemn assemblies.

.

yes this was said but,


i believe after this, a king found the book of the law,

and he was ashamed they lost the truth, and cryed in sackcloth and ashes.

he held and celebrated Gods fesitival afterwords, and God was pleased.


sorry i dont have verse for this at the moment, i have to go lookup where

 

[Willie-T]

What a thread! And, I thought I was an old geezer with nothing to do but gripe. You guys best me, hands down.

 

[MarcR]

Not sure I understand what you mean here.

That is understandable since I misspoke. day length varies between 9 and 15 hours; but sunset to sunset is always 24 hours.

It was about 4AM when I wrote that and I should have been in bed.

 

[john832]

That is understandable since I misspoke. day length varies between 9 and 15 hours; but sunset to sunset is always 24 hours.

It was about 4AM when I wrote that and I should have been in bed.

No problem my friend, we all do this occasionally.

 

[Jason0047]

The word "Easter" is referring to the Passover. The word "Easter" is a derivative of the word "East." When we look up the origin of the word "East" it has to do with the "Dawning of the Sun."

Jesus is the bright and morning star. Jesus is the sun of righteousness. Jesus is the Passover (Pascha) Lamb.

Check out this very lengthy article here:

“Easter” or “Passover” in Acts 12:4? - King James Version Today

 

[Jason0047]

Now that it has been demonstrated that "Easter" is a biblical word referring to the day to celebrate Christ's resurrection, it will be shown why the KJV is correct in translating "Πάσχα (Pascha)" as "Easter" at Acts 12:4. For starters, here are some modernGreek-English dictionaries showing that at least in modern Greek the primary meaning of "Pascha" is "Easter", not "Passover":

 

[Jason0047]

Many English-speaking people are deceived by the similar sounds between "Pascha" and "Passover" and therefore find it difficult to understand that"Pascha" could mean Easter. The English word, "Passover", is a perfect translation of "Pascha" in the context of the Jewish celebration because the root Hebrew word, pasach", means "to pass over" (Brown-Driver-Briggs’ Hebrew Definitions). Yet it is only in English that the verb, "pass over", and"Pasach/Pascha" are phonetically similar. In other languages, it is not so obvious from phonetics that"Pascha" refers to the Passover. Perhaps that is why in most other languages the primary meaning of "Pascha" is not Passover. For example, in modern Greek, "Πάσχα (Pascha)" primarily means Easter. When a non-Jewish Greek person says, "Καλό Πάσχα! (Happy Pascha!)", he is not wishing you a happy Jewish holiday but rather a happy Christian holiday. In modern Greek, Passover is the secondary meaning of "Pascha". "Pascha" means Passover only when the context is clearly Jewish or when the word is qualified as being the Hebrew or Jewish "Pascha" as follows:

Easter = Πάσχα (Pascha)Passover = εβραϊκό Πάσχα (Hebrew Pascha), Πάσχα των ιουδαίων (Pascha of the Jew).​

Although "Pascha" was originally a Hebrew word ("פּסח (pesach)"), Greek, being the language of a predominantly Christian nation, had appropriated the Jewish word and gave it the Christian meaning of "Easter". That is why in modern Greek, the primary meaning of "Πάσχα" is Easter and Passover is actually the secondary meaning when "Πάσχα" is qualified as the "εβραϊκό Πάσχα (Hebrew Pascha)" or the "Πάσχα των ιουδαίων (Pascha of the Jews)". Many other languages of Christendom are like modern Greek in making Easter the primary meaning of the transliteration of "Pascha":

 

[djness]

I'm confident a rabbit wasn't nailed to a cross for my sins however I will still eat these guys...

 

[Jason0047]

I'm confident a rabbit wasn't nailed to a cross for my sins however I will still eat these guys...

Well, the confusion here arises when folks try to mix "Early Modern English" (1600's English) as being the same thing as "Late Modern English" (Today's English). The two are not the same thing. Yes, in many cases, Early Modern English and Late Modern English can mean the same thing. But not always (Which is the case here). For example: When my parents were growing up, the word "gay" was primarily understood as being in reference to one being happy. However, if you were to say that word today to people with no actual context, they would then think about something else. So words and their usage change with the passage of time. The word "Easter" is rooted in the word "East." Look up the origin of the word "East."

I mean, people say "Good Friday." But do they realize that Friday and the other days of the week are actually pagan in origin? Should we stop saying "Thursday" "Friday" etc. because of that? No, we don't associate those words today as being pagan anymore today. We don't say "Thursday" and immediately think about worshiping Thor. Words change in their use and meaning with the passage of time. To so say otherwise would be illogical.

 

[dcontroversal]

Well, the confusion here arises when folks try to mix "Early Modern English" (1600's English) as being the same thing as "Late Modern English" (Today's English). The two are not the same thing. Yes, in many cases, Early Modern English and Late Modern English can mean the same thing. But not always (Which is the case here). For example: When my parents were growing up, the word "gay" was primarily understood as being in reference to one being happy. However, if you were to say that word today to people with no actual context, they would then think about something else. So words and their usage change with the passage of time. The word "Easter" is rooted in the word "East." Look up the origin of the word "East."

I mean, people say "Good Friday." But do they realize that Friday and the other days of the week are actually pagan in origin? Should we stop saying "Thursday" "Friday" etc. because of that? No, we don't associate those words today as being pagan anymore today. We don't say "Thursday" and immediately think about worshiping Thor. Words change in their use and meaning with the passage of time. To so say otherwise would be illogical.

So how does the above bolded jive with your worship of the 1611 King JIM translation/transliteration of the bible?