PAGANIZATION OF THE CHURCH....Easter vs Resurrection Sunday

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Where do you get that there were other English versions out in circulation to the public before the KJV ???

There were only a couple of English versions before the KJV was written, and they were fought and kept from the public. The KJV was the first that was mass distributed to the public for circulation. Yes I do agree the KJV did have its translation errors as well, but it did not change the gospel message. But what I do not agree with is that they compared it to and translated it from other English versions. The following shows how and by what it was translated from;


First printed by the King's Printer Robert Barker, this was the third translation into English to be approved by the English Church authorities. The first was the Great Bible commissioned in the reign of King Henry VIII (1535), and the second was the Bishops' Bible of 1568.[SUP][3][/SUP] In January 1604, King James I convened the Hampton Court Conference where a new English version was conceived in response to the perceived problems of the earlier translations as detected by the Puritans,[SUP][4][/SUP] a faction within the Church of England.[SUP][5][/SUP] The translation is considered a towering achievement in English literature, as both beautiful and scholarly.
James gave the translators instructions intended to guarantee that the new version would conform to the ecclesiology and reflect the episcopal structure of the Church of England and its belief in an ordained clergy.[SUP][6][/SUP] The translation was done by 47 scholars, all of whom were members of the Church of England.[SUP][7][/SUP] In common with most other translations of the period, the New Testament was translated from Greek, the Old Testament was translated from Hebrew and Aramaic text, while the Apocryphawere translated from the Greek and Latin.


Kenneth you would disagree with me if on a sunny day I stated it was sunny......I suggest you study a little bit more instead of cutting and pasting all of the time...the OT in the King JAMES is almost copied verbatim from a previous ENGLISH version...go read their own preface as they state as MUCH.....

No offence, but your view, what you believe, what you teach means nothing as you have consistently proven your erroneous views.......and lack of knowledge!
 
I am not here to convince you. God's Word will convict you on this point (If you let it). But let's please try and stay on topic. We are talking about the word "Easter" vs. "Resurrection Sunday" here and not the KJV.

I can tell you that your view is incorrect as I have studied this well...my points stand and the only convicting that comes to mind is how most of what you stand on lacks biblical credence!

Why did the King JIM translators translate the word EASTER seeing how it is the word for PASSOVER......ONE OF MANY translated words that are incorrectly translated.....!
 
Kenneth you would disagree with me if on a sunny day I stated it was sunny......I suggest you study a little bit more instead of cutting and pasting all of the time...the OT in the King JAMES is almost copied verbatim from a previous ENGLISH version...go read their own preface as they state as MUCH.....

No offence, but your view, what you believe, what you teach means nothing as you have consistently proven your erroneous views.......and lack of knowledge!


Sorry but I have studied this issue, and not one source that I have read from says the KJV was copied from a previous English version. This is a lie stated by others to try and discredit the KJV, yet most all the translations we have now days derived from the KJV. They changed the wording either to fit now day reading comprehension or to corrupt the scriptures to fit man made doctrines.

The KJV was compared in a major study to the original Hebrew and Greek, and the Dead Sea Scrolls were even used in this study as well. The KJV came back still of all the translations to be the closest to the original writings with only a few minor translation errors that does not affect the salvation teaching.

Those errors consisted of things such as the Red Sea was actually the Sea of Reeds, and how the word love has many different meanings in Hebrew and in some places was misused. There are a few others but this is not the thread to go through these in because this is not the reason for this thread, but none of which affects the gospel of salvation through Christ message like I said before.
 
I can tell you that your view is incorrect as I have studied this well...my points stand and the only convicting that comes to mind is how most of what you stand on lacks biblical credence!

Why did the King JIM translators translate the word EASTER seeing how it is the word for PASSOVER......ONE OF MANY translated words that are incorrectly translated.....!

And so who complained about it back then?

If Easter was this big pagan holiday in the 1600's as you claim, surely Christians would have thrown a fit at the translators for putting a pagan word for a holy one in God's Word. No?

Besides, the KJV is correct in translating "Πάσχα (Pascha)" as "Easter" at Acts 12:4. For starters, here is just one of several modern Greek-English dictionaries showing that at least in modern Greek the primary meaning of "Pascha" is "Easter", not "Passover":


 
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Well, the confusion here arises when folks try to mix "Early Modern English" (1600's English) as being the same thing as "Late Modern English" (Today's English). The two are not the same thing. Yes, in many cases, Early Modern English and Late Modern English can mean the same thing. But not always (Which is the case here). For example: When my parents were growing up, the word "gay" was primarily understood as being in reference to one being happy. However, if you were to say that word today to people with no actual context, they would then think about something else. So words and their usage change with the passage of time. The word "Easter" is rooted in the word "East." Look up the origin of the word "East."

I mean, people say "Good Friday." But do they realize that Friday and the other days of the week are actually pagan in origin? Should we stop saying "Thursday" "Friday" etc. because of that? No, we don't associate those words today as being pagan anymore today. We don't say "Thursday" and immediately think about worshiping Thor. Words change in their use and meaning with the passage of time. To so say otherwise would be illogical.
I'm still going to eat these knowing Jesus paid for my sins...whatever day of the week it was.
cadbury-cream-eggs-4pack-im-130773.jpg
 
Where do you get that there were other English versions out in circulation to the public before the KJV ???

There were only a couple of English versions before the KJV was written, and they were fought and kept from the public. The KJV was the first that was mass distributed to the public for circulation. Yes I do agree the KJV did have its translation errors as well, but it did not change the gospel message. But what I do not agree with is that they compared it to and translated it from other English versions. The following shows how and by what it was translated from;

.

James' instructions included several requirements that kept the new translation familiar to its listeners and readers. The text of the Bishops' Bible would serve as the primary guide for the translators, and the familiar proper names of the biblical characters would all be retained. If the Bishops' Bible was deemed problematic in any situation, the translators were permitted to consult other translations from a pre-approved list: the Tyndale Bible, the Coverdale Bible, Matthew's Bible, the Great Bible, and the Geneva Bible. In addition, later scholars have detected an influence on the Authorized Version from the translations of Taverner's Bible and the New Testament of the Douay–Rheims Bible.[SUP][43][/SUP] It is for this reason that the flyleaf of most printings of the Authorized Version observes that the text had been "translated out of the original tongues, and with the former translations diligently compared and revised, by His Majesty's special commandment

It seems it is par for the course with you to talk without all of the facts!
 
Sorry but I have studied this issue, and not one source that I have read from says the KJV was copied from a previous English version. This is a lie stated by others to try and discredit the KJV, yet most all the translations we have now days derived from the KJV. They changed the wording either to fit now day reading comprehension or to corrupt the scriptures to fit man made doctrines.

The KJV was compared in a major study to the original Hebrew and Greek, and the Dead Sea Scrolls were even used in this study as well. The KJV came back still of all the translations to be the closest to the original writings with only a few minor translation errors that does not affect the salvation teaching.

Those errors consisted of things such as the Red Sea was actually the Sea of Reeds, and how the word love has many different meanings in Hebrew and in some places was misused. There are a few others but this is not the thread to go through these in because this is not the reason for this thread, but none of which affects the gospel of salvation through Christ message like I said before.

Read post 206 and understand that your little certificate and license to preach from whatever school you went to is not worth the paper it is printed on KENNETH...it seems your studies are not as diligent as you put off....!
 
And so who complained about it back then?

If Easter was this big pagan holiday in the 1600's as you claim, surely Christians would have thrown a fit at the translators for putting a pagan word for a holy one in God's Word. No?

Besides, the KJV is correct in translating "Πάσχα (Pascha)" as "Easter" at Acts 12:4. For starters, here is just one of several modern Greek-English dictionaries showing that at least in modern Greek the primary meaning of "Pascha" is "Easter", not "Passover":



Like I said, you will not change my mind as I have studied this well and the King JAMES is nothing more than a translation/transliteration........and at the end of the day you worship a version of the bible period.....!
 
I'm still going to eat these knowing Jesus paid for my sins...whatever day of the week it was.

I would rather promote the Savior instead of the chocolate and believe that Jesus forgives me if I confess my sins. For John tells us to sin not. But he says if we do sin, we have an advocate that we can go to named Jesus Christ (1 John 2:1). For if we confess our sins, he is faithful and just to forgive us our sins and to cleanse us from all unrighteousness (1 John 1:9).
 
Like I said, you will not change my mind as I have studied this well and the King JAMES is nothing more than a translation/transliteration........and at the end of the day you worship a version of the bible period.....!

I wasn't expecting to change your mind. Only God is in the mind changing business (If we let Him).
 
James' instructions included several requirements that kept the new translation familiar to its listeners and readers. The text of the Bishops' Bible would serve as the primary guide for the translators, and the familiar proper names of the biblical characters would all be retained. If the Bishops' Bible was deemed problematic in any situation, the translators were permitted to consult other translations from a pre-approved list: the Tyndale Bible, the Coverdale Bible, Matthew's Bible, the Great Bible, and the Geneva Bible. In addition, later scholars have detected an influence on the Authorized Version from the translations of Taverner's Bible and the New Testament of the Douay–Rheims Bible.[SUP][43][/SUP] It is for this reason that the flyleaf of most printings of the Authorized Version observes that the text had been "translated out of the original tongues, and with the former translations diligently compared and revised, by His Majesty's special commandment

It seems it is par for the course with you to talk without all of the facts!



The term Tyndale's Bible is not strictly correct, because Tyndale never published a complete Bible.

The Coverdale bible was written based on the writings form the Tyndale translation, not from the original Greek and Hebrew.

Matthew's Bible was also just a reprint of Tyndales, and the unfinished part of the OT that Tyndale did not complete was done through translation from German and Latin by Myles Coverdale, not from Hebrew.

The Great Bible was also just another reprint done by Myles Coverdale by using the Tyndales version and finished off by the German and Latin translation to finish the OT. It was the first authorized edition of the bible that was allowed outside of England, as the previous versions were only distributed in England and not mass wide.

The Geneva Bible that was printed 51 years before the KJV was the
version of the Holy Bible to be significant because, for the very first time, a mechanically printed, mass-produced Bible was made available directly to the general public which came with a variety of scriptural study guides and aids (collectively called an apparatus), which included verse citations which allow the reader to cross-reference one verse with numerous relevant verses in the rest of the Bible, introductions to each book of the Bible which acted to summarize all of the material that each book would cover, maps, tables, woodcut illustrations, indexes, as well as other included features — all of which would eventually lead to the reputation of the Geneva Bible as history's very first study Bible
This version used forceful and vigorous language in it.


The King James version was The translation was done by 47 scholars, all of whom were members of the Church of England.[SUP][7][/SUP] In common with most other translations of the period, the New Testament was translated fromGreek, the Old Testament was translated from Hebrew and Aramaic text, while the Apocryphawere translated from the Greek and Latin.

Later on the KJV was compared back again to the original Hebrew and Greek texts as well was the Dead Sea Scrolls used in this study. In this study the translators found that only few minor translation errors were present, and not major errors making the whole version a flawed version.
 
I would rather promote the Savior instead of the chocolate and believe that Jesus forgives me if I confess my sins. For John tells us to sin not. But he says if we do sin, we have an advocate that we can go to named Jesus Christ (1 John 2:1). For if we confess our sins, he is faithful and just to forgive us our sins and to cleanse us from all unrighteousness (1 John 1:9).


Yes you are right here that we should speak more of Jesus then anything else, yet it is not sinning to eat Easter candy or hard boiled eggs if you are not doing it for the idol aspect and it does not cause one to stumble.
 
The term Tyndale's Bible is not strictly correct, because Tyndale never published a complete Bible.

The Coverdale bible was written based on the writings form the Tyndale translation, not from the original Greek and Hebrew.

Matthew's Bible was also just a reprint of Tyndales, and the unfinished part of the OT that Tyndale did not complete was done through translation from German and Latin by Myles Coverdale, not from Hebrew.

The Great Bible was also just another reprint done by Myles Coverdale by using the Tyndales version and finished off by the German and Latin translation to finish the OT. It was the first authorized edition of the bible that was allowed outside of England, as the previous versions were only distributed in England and not mass wide.

The Geneva Bible that was printed 51 years before the KJV was the
version of the Holy Bible to be significant because, for the very first time, a mechanically printed, mass-produced Bible was made available directly to the general public which came with a variety of scriptural study guides and aids (collectively called an apparatus), which included verse citations which allow the reader to cross-reference one verse with numerous relevant verses in the rest of the Bible, introductions to each book of the Bible which acted to summarize all of the material that each book would cover, maps, tables, woodcut illustrations, indexes, as well as other included features — all of which would eventually lead to the reputation of the Geneva Bible as history's very first study Bible
This version used forceful and vigorous language in it.


The King James version was The translation was done by 47 scholars, all of whom were members of the Church of England.[SUP][7][/SUP] In common with most other translations of the period, the New Testament was translated fromGreek, the Old Testament was translated from Hebrew and Aramaic text, while the Apocryphawere translated from the Greek and Latin.

Later on the KJV was compared back again to the original Hebrew and Greek texts as well was the Dead Sea Scrolls used in this study. In this study the translators found that only few minor translation errors were present, and not major errors making the whole version a flawed version.

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Originally Posted by kennethcadwell
But what I do not agree with is that they compared it to and translated it from other English versions.

PAY ATTENTION TO THE BOLDED KENNETH AND READ.... and with the former translations diligently compared and revised....the translators were permitted to consult other translations from a pre-approved list

James' instructions included several requirements that kept the new translation familiar to its listeners and readers. The text of the Bishops' Bible would serve as the primary guide for the translators, and the familiar proper names of the biblical characters would all be retained. If the Bishops' Bible was deemed problematic in any situation, the translators were permitted to consult other translations from a pre-approved list: the Tyndale Bible, the Coverdale Bible, Matthew's Bible, the Great Bible, and the Geneva Bible. In addition, later scholars have detected an influence on the Authorized Version from the translations of Taverner's Bible and the New Testament of the Douay–Rheims Bible.[SUP][43][/SUP] It is for this reason that the flyleaf of most printings of the Authorized Version observes that the text had been "translated out of the original tongues, and with the former translations diligently compared and revised, by His Majesty's special commandment
 
Many churches in the American South still hold traditional sunrise services in (cemeteries) as a sign of recognition that Jesus no longer lay in the tomb on Easter morning.


The service starts early in the morning and is timed so that the attendants
can see the sun rise when the service is going.

N.T. - before lite, while it was (still dark), the tomb was allready empty,

why they worship facing the sun ?
 
Paul said:1 Co 6:12
12 All things are lawful unto me, but all things are not expedient: all things are lawful for me, but I will not be brought under the power of any.
KJV

I think his intent is that we should look beyond whether doing or refraining from doing a specific act is sinful per se.

We are called to consider how our conduct and practice impacts the task of sharing the Gospel.