Ever wonder how Paul could say there's no male, no female, no Jew, etc.... and then say he does not allow "females" certain privileges?
I think I will always listen to Jesus before I do, Paul.
Just my opinion, but I wonder if Paul was trying to protect Christian women at that particular time. Women were suppressed, disregarded and abused and not considered to be on any equal level with men. I think perhaps the women were not used to this new-found freedom in Christ and were probably overly zealous to learn and understand. Liberty was all brand new to them. I can imagine they would be excitedly calling out questions or making bold statements aloud and pretty much disrupting the teaching. Maybe they were not yet qualified to teach because liberty and grace was so unfamiliar to them as yet.
After leaving a church where I was brainwashed with legalism, I sought counseling to help renew my mind. My therapist gave me a book regarding lies the legalistic church tells women. After reading it, I was angry. I was so offended that I had been spiritually limited by the traditional views that I had been taught to believe. In fact, my counselor warned me that I would probably become angry and he advised me to allow the Lord to help me work through the anger and forgive those who misrepresented the grace of God to me. But during the time of my healing, I was in no position to teach because my anger and disillusionment with the church was preventing me from seeing clearly. But God did heal me and I was able to forgive my former pastor and church leaders.
I am thinking maybe that was the case with these women in Paul's time. Do you think that might be possible?
