I read something the other day and I cannot find scripture as to why Jesus did not baptize?
Perhaps because baptism does not save anyone...
I read something the other day and I cannot find scripture as to why Jesus did not baptize?
Again, a dance around a question you cannot answer.
Where in the bible did Jesus baptize anyone besides the Apostles (on Pentecost) and the house of Cornelius ?
use scripture, not your opinion
The 'one baptism' in Ephesians may be either the baptism in water or the baptism in the Holy Spirit. The emphasis is on the fact that all believers have received the same baptism.
if it were a HS baptism, why did Paul have to lay hands on them to give them the power of the HS ????
I baptize you with water for repentance. BUT after me comes one who is more powerful than I, whose sandals I am not worthy to carry. He will baptize you with the holy Spirit and fire. Matt. 3:11 (Mark 1:7,8; Luke 3:16)Here is exactly what I am talking about, you are teaching two baptisms, you in what I have quoted of you have yourself expressed the contradiction knowing there is one baptism (Eph 4:5) yet your man made doctrine calls for two, water baptism and HS baptism.
John the baptizer said he could not baptize with the HS, only the Christ could do that (Matt 3:11) yet the Christ tells His disciples (this includes John the baptizer) to baptize making disciples (Matt 28:19), he did not say "go teach all nations I the Christ will baptize them", he told the disciples to baptize, and they can ONLY baptize with water (Matt 3:11)
Paul laid hands on them to receive revelation from God as to why they had not demonstrated being baptized with holy Spirit. The laying on of hands does NOT give someone the holy Spirit. Unto what then were ye baptized? . . . Unto John's baptism. Wonder why Paul asked them that question? Then when they were baptized in the name of Jesus and they were filled (immersed, baptized) with the holy Spirit . . . Did the disciples continue to water baptize in Acts? Yeppers, we do read some occurrences and it is because the idea was still new to them . . . just as some tried to continue circumcision -Now someone here keeps trying to use those who were baptized with the baptism of John in the first 4 verses in Acts 19 as an example of HS baptism, this cannot be so, if after Paul taught them, and they were baptized, if it were a HS baptism, why did Paul have to lay hands on them to give them the power of the HS ????
Acts 19:6 (KJV)
And when Paul had laid his hands upon them, the Holy Ghost came on them; and they spake with tongues, and prophesied.
It is because baptism is not a HS baptism, it is not taking a bath in water (1 Pet 3:21), it is a symbolic representation of the death, burial and resurrection of the Christ, it is by doing this act with a clean conscience (in a repentant mindset (1 Pet. 3:21)) that spiritually puts us in contact with the ever cleansing blood of our savior (1 John 1:7, Rev. 1:5) remitting our sins (Acts 22:16, Rev. 1:5)
Here is exactly what I am talking about, you are teaching two baptisms, you in what I have quoted of you have yourself expressed the contradiction knowing there is one baptism (Eph 4:5) yet your man made doctrine calls for two, water baptism and HS baptism.
John the baptizer said he could not baptize with the HS, only the Christ could do that (Matt 3:11)
yet the Christ tells His disciples (this includes John the baptizer) to baptize making disciples (Matt 28:19), he did not say "go teach all nations I the Christ will baptize them", he told the disciples to baptize, and they can ONLY baptize with water (Matt 3:11)
Now someone here keeps trying to use those who were baptized with the baptism of John in the first 4 verses in Acts 19 as an example of HS baptism, this cannot be so, if after Paul taught them, and they were baptized, if it were a HS baptism, why did Paul have to lay hands on them to give them the power of the HS ????
Acts 19:6 (KJV)
And when Paul had laid his hands upon them, the Holy Ghost came on them; and they spake with tongues, and prophesied.
It is because baptism is not a HS baptism, it is not taking a bath in water (1 Pet 3:21), it is a symbolic representation of the death, burial and resurrection of the Christ, it is by doing this act with a clean conscience (in a repentant mindset (1 Pet. 3:21)) that spiritually puts us in contact with the ever cleansing blood of our savior (1 John 1:7, Rev. 1:5) remitting our sins (Acts 22:16, Rev. 1:5)
Man, I realize there's so much to say. Baptism is just the beginning; it is also a concrete (physical action of identification)
testimony/confession of our faith. In other words it is public. Even if only one other person (the person who baptizes you!) sees it. Satan and his kingdom sees it and is defeated by it. Exodus 14--15:21. It is irrevocable.
That is, namely, that Jesus did not baptize in water because................He acts through His Body, the church. Especially on this group-matter. This 'corporate' matter. Genesis shows some of our individual salvation and transformation and maturing in the Lord. But Exodus especially shows the church, our group rescue and salvation and experience and purpose. In both books there are pictures of baptism: Noah and the flood and Israel and the Red Sea. Both are 'public.' On the negative side we're freed from Satan's world. On the positive side, we really are baptized into the Body of Christ, 1 Cor 12:13.
Jesus our King and Great High Priest baptizes us..........through the members of His Body.
He told us that He came to destroy the work of the devil.
I believe He said He "came to seek and save that which was lost." I do not believe He said He came to save the world.He said He came to save the world, yet no record of Him water baptizing, only Him telling His disciples to.
Why don't you just say you don't know? or better, not say nothing at all if you "don't know"
He said He came to save the world, yet no record of Him water baptizing, only Him telling His disciples to.
Is it beyond your ability to recognise that Scripture teaches three baptisms? Firstly the baptism of John, which was pointing forwards to the drenching of the Holy Spirit by the Messiah, secondly the actual drenching in the Holy Spirit, and thirdly the baptism spoken of by Jesus which would be of those who had been drenched by the Holy Spirit.
why did Paul say Christ didn't send him to baptize, but to preach the gospel?
there is a difference between the gospel and H[SUB]2[/SUB]O immersion, it seems?
and God was pleased that by the foolishness of what was preached, those who believe should be saved![]()
Be careful, Jabbbbber..... I sense you about to claim John 3:17..... and that is not what it says.
For once, you are right.... God did all that, not Jesus.John 3:17 (KJV)
For God sent not his Son into the world to condemn the world; but that the world through him might be saved.
Not real sure, but I think that has been exactly what I have been repeating over and over again.... Jesus telling us what He said He came to do.Just wondering here..............but isn't it odd that folks never seem to ask Jesus why He did or did not do something? Wouldn't you think He would know better than us?
(yeah, well, right.........giving up the ghost would probably be required to do so, but, still...............)
JabberJaw said:John 3:17 (KJV)
For God sent not his Son into the world to condemn the world; but that the world through him might be saved.
For once, you are right.... God did all that, not Jesus.
Yes... IF ANY MAN believes that He actually came to do what He said He came for... to destroy the work of the devil.Maybe this one will help you.
John 12:47 (KJV)
47 And if any man hear my words, and believe not, I judge him not: for I came not to judge the world, but to save the world.