Has anybody else noticed that at times the New Testament uses Old Testament prophecies which appear totally out of context to the original author.
some prophecies have a twofold application. thus for example Psalm 22 refers to experiences of David, but is also a prophecy of the greater David. and the latter is remarkably fulfilled. Psalm 2 refers to the king of Israel as being God's 'begotten son'. But also looks ahead to the coming of God's only begotten Son
Just a few examples (all alluding to OT scripture as detailed in notations)
Matthew 2 15
"I called my son out of Egypt" (Hosea 11:1 Apparent Context is The father speaking of the Exodus narrative)
This prophecy originally referred to Israel being called out of Egypt. But if you read on you will note that their heart remained in Egypt and they returned there. Therefore there was need for Israel to come out of Egypt again. And this happened when Israel came out of Egypt in the person of our LORD Jesus Christ. Matthew was bringing out that Jesus was Himself the representative of Israel fashioning the new true Israel, and was thus against fulfilling the prophecy of Hosea. This was why Jesus submitted to baptism by John, because He was being baptised on behalf of Israel thus fulfilling all righteousness.
Matthew 2 18
"A cry of Anguish is heard in Ramah- weeping and mournining unrestrained,
Rachel weeps for her children, refusing to be comforted-for they are dead"
Again this originally refers to Israel suffering under God's judgment. It occurred a number of times when Israel suffered. Israel did not just suffer once. But it occurred again when Jesus came and Israel once again wept over her children.
(Jeremiah 31:15 Apparent context is The Father redeeming the exiles as 31:16 follows: But now the Lord says "Do not weep any longer for I will reward you. Your children will come back from the distant land of the enemy...18 I have heard Isreal saying "you have disciplined me severely, but I deserved it")
Matthew saw this as fulfilled again when Israel came out of Egypt in the person of Jesus Christ. And it followed the weeping of Israel. That is how God works.
Paul
1 Corinthians 9:9
"Do not muzzle the Ox while it is treading" inferring payment to priests
Paul's point was that this instruction was teaching a more general important lesson, that the one who does the work has the right to partake of it.
(Deut 25:4 A law of Moses to be kind to animals, not a proverb but used as such)
But as Paul says it contains a more general message that the one who does the work should receive from its increase. (It is not strictly a prophecy),
My question would be more along the lines of:
Do Prophecies have multiple meanings?
Unquestionably.
Isnt using Biblical passages out of Context in order to make a reasoned argument the cause of so many denominations?
Using Scripture out of context, yes. Using prophecy out of context, I doubt it.
Did the Prophets themselves fully understand them?
They probably understood the near fulfilment, but not the further fulfilment.
Why teach New Doctrine with an out of context quote as it can cause debate?
we shouldn't we are not inspired writers