Did Jesus come to set the captives free from guilt, or set them free from sin?

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Did Jesus come to set the captives free from guilt or set them free from sin?

  • Jesus came to set the captives free from guilt.

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Nov 23, 2013
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#41
Notice the Condtion for the blood to cleanse you. Walk in the light as He is in the Light. This is a parallel of what 1 John 2:3-4 says. For 1 John 2:3 essentially says that we can have an assurance of knowing Him if we find we are keeping His commandments; And 1 John 2:4 says, he that says he knows Him and does not keep His Commandments is a liar and the truth is not in Him. So walking in the light as He is in the Light is allowing Christ to help you to keep His Commandments. Being born again, and having God live within you will result in the LORD doing the "good work withiin you (See Ezekiel 36:26-27).
What are Jesus' commandments?
 
Jul 22, 2014
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#42
I can agree with that but that's exactly what born again men and women do! They aren't trying to keep sinning but now with impunity! A born again Spirit is a Spirit made one with Christ. That Spirit agrees with God and the person wants to be free from sin. This person has the blood of Jesus to continually cleanse them from sin.

The problem I've had with some of your posts is that you claim that they don't sin at all . You even said that you don't sin. That's just in error.
Well, I have to disagree, my friend. The argument that all born again believers automatically do the right thing (or walk in righteousness) over time is not exactly true. How so? Again, who was Jesus speaking to in Matthew 6:15? If Jesus was speaking to the unbeliever it would do them no good because an unbeliever cannot be forgiven (even if they forgive everyone they know). A unbeliever needs to accept Jesus in order to be saved. So Jesus was speaking to the believer in Matthew 6:15. Meaning, if the believer (not the unbeliever) does not forgive, then they will not be forgiven by the Father. This is a free will choice. A condition. Jesus would never say this to His people if they all just automatically would forgive. It would be useless information. Now, if you think Jesus's words are no longer binding for the New Testament saint today (Like Mid Acts Dispensationalists do), then you are faced with a contradiction in Scripture. For in 1 Timothy 6:3-4, Paul essentially says that if any man speaks contrary to the words of Jesus Christ and the doctrine of Godliness is proud and he knows nothing.
 
Jul 22, 2014
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#43
What are Jesus' commandments?
Christ's Commands are based on love. Love the Lord your God with all your heart, mind, and soul and love your neighbor as yourself.

These are the New Testament Commands (Not the Old Testament Commands as a whole). Yes, the moral laws have carried on over from the Old on into the New. But believers do not obey the ceremonial or judicial laws of the Old Covenant. However, we are supposed to obey Jesus and His apostles. For even Paul said that what he had written should be considered as the Lord's Commandments. Jesus said, if you love me, you will keep my commandments. There are 1,050 + Commands in the New Testament. Keeping these Commands is not a ladder to salvation. Keeping these Commands is merely just evidence that you have been saved by the fact that the LORD lives within you. For if we sin on our road to overcoming sin, what do we do? Confess and forsake our sin so that we can receive His grace and mercy (Proverbs 28:13) (1 John 1:9) (1 John 1:7) (1 John 2:3-4).
 
Dec 19, 2009
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#44
Did Jesus come to set the captives free from guilt, or set them free from sin?
He set us free from our guilt by dying on the cross. He also told us to stop sinning. That is because sin has a disastrous effect on our lives.
 
Nov 23, 2013
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#46
Christ's Commands are based on love. Love the Lord your God with all your heart, mind, and soul and love your neighbor as yourself.

These are the New Testament Commands (Not the Old Testament Commands as a whole). Yes, the moral laws have carried on over from the Old on into the New. But believers do not obey the ceremonial or judicial laws of the Old Covenant. However, we are supposed to obey Jesus and His apostles. For even Paul said that what he had written should be considered as the Lord's Commandments. Jesus said, if you love me, you will keep my commandments. There are 1,050 + Commands in the New Testament. Keeping these Commands is not a ladder to salvation. Keeping these Commands is merely just evidence that you have been saved by the fact that the LORD lives within you. For if we sin on our road to overcoming sin, what do we do? Confess and forsake our sin so that we can receive His grace and mercy (Proverbs 28:13) (1 John 1:9) (1 John 1:7) (1 John 2:3-4).
Where does the bible distinguish between "the law" and "the moral law"? The bible says that if we're in Christ we are not under the law. Where do you get this "moral law" from?
 
Jul 22, 2014
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#47
Where does the bible distinguish between "the law" and "the moral law"? The bible says that if we're in Christ we are not under the law. Where do you get this "moral law" from?
We still obey the moral law in the New Covenant. This moral law is based on love. Check out Romans 13:8-10.
 
E

ember

Guest
#48

Originally Posted by Jason0047

As for my gift: Several people have told me I should be a teacher or Pastor, but I told them I am waiting on God's timing and direction for something like that. For now, there are other things I believe God wants me to do so as to glorify Him.




and how do you see yourself glorifying your Creator in this thread?

I ask questions for answers...although it seems they may be without merit, I can assure you I have reasons for questions

BTW, when you gonna answer the last ones I asked?

see, if you don't see yourself as teacher, then you have to accept that questions are part of a normal dialogue, but actually, God Himself invites questions so why should we not do also?


from post 810 in the other thread which you appear to have abandonned....actually, thinking about it, you have abandonned every thread you start the moment someone starts asking questions you cannot answer and each thread you start is a very poor clone of the one before it

that dna must be awful stretched by now


so, do you believe in the gifts of the spirit or are you a cessationist?
 
Jul 22, 2014
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#49
For what is the opposite of being moral? It's being immoral; And nowhere in God's Word does the Lord condone His people in being immoral.
 
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Hesyasha

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#50
Before*I say any thing, I just wanted to make clear that I haven't read any other posts at all except the very first one.




The answer to your question in neither. The purpose of the Messiah was to take the place of the sacrifical law (the same thing as the law of righteousness) And my proof is all over Heb.10. (KJV) In order to understand most of what's happening in this chapter, you have to start reading at the beginning (Please read this on your own, preferably out of the KJV). I'm only going to put verses 6-10 KJV to save time:




*[[Heb 10:6-10/KJV]]*


*%v 6% In burnt offerings and sacrifices for sin thou hast had no pleasure.


%v 7% Then said I, Lo, I come (in the volume of the book it is written of me,) to do thy will, O God.*


%v 8% Above when he said, Sacrifice and offering and burnt offerings and offering for sin thou wouldest not, neither hadst pleasure therein; which are offered by the law;*


%v 9% Then said he, Lo, I come to do thy will, O God. He taketh away the first, that he may establish the second.*


%v 10% By the which will we are sanctified through the offering of the body of Jesus Christ once for all.


Read verses 9 and 10 again. 9 said he taketh away "the first". But what is " the first"? The first is the law that was talked about in verse 8, the sacrifical law. "The second" is the Messiah, which is proven in verse 10.

Before the Messiah, (or since Adam and Eve), the wages of sin was death (Rom. 6:23). That's why every time someone sinned, instead of them dying they had to make a sacrifice. God was tired of constantly having to accept these offerings and sacrifices and put in place his son to be the ultimate sacrifice, the final sacrifice for everyone's sins.

This doesn't mean you cannot sin any more, but that's a different topic.

I hope I was clear in explaining and please read this on your own (KJV).

Also, forgive me if there are any typos for I am trying this without a keyboard.
 
Jul 22, 2014
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#51
Before*I say any thing, I just wanted to make clear that I haven't read any other posts at all except the very first one. The answer to your question in neither. The purpose of the Messiah was to take the place of the sacrifical law (the same thing as the law of righteousness) And my proof is all over Heb.10. (KJV) In order to understand most of what's happening in this chapter, you have to start reading at the beginning (Please read this on your own, preferably out of the KJV). I'm only going to put verses 6-10 KJV to save time: *[[Heb 10:6-10/KJV]]* *%v 6% In burnt offerings and sacrifices for sin thou hast had no pleasure. %v 7% Then said I, Lo, I come (in the volume of the book it is written of me,) to do thy will, O God.* %v 8% Above when he said, Sacrifice and offering and burnt offerings and offering for sin thou wouldest not, neither hadst pleasure therein; which are offered by the law;* %v 9% Then said he, Lo, I come to do thy will, O God. He taketh away the first, that he may establish the second.* %v 10% By the which will we are sanctified through the offering of the body of Jesus Christ once for all. Read verses 9 and 10 again. 9 said he taketh away "the first". But what is " the first"? The first is the law that was talked about in verse 8, the sacrifical law. "The second" is the Messiah, which is proven in verse 10. Before the Messiah, (or since Adam and Eve), the wages of sin was death (Rom. 6:23). That's why every time someone sinned, instead of them dying they had to make a sacrifice. God was tired of constantly having to accept these offerings and sacrifices and put in place his son to be the ultimate sacrifice, the final sacrifice for everyone's sins. This doesn't mean you cannot sin any more, but that's a different topic. I hope I was clear in explaining and please read this on your own (KJV). Also, forgive me if there are any typos for I am trying this without a keyboard.
Yes, but what do you make of 1 John 3:8 and Ezekiel 36:26-27.
 
Nov 23, 2013
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#52
We still obey the moral law in the New Covenant. This moral law is based on love. Check out Romans 13:8-10.
Rom 13:8 Owe no man any thing, but to love one another: for he that loveth another hath fulfilled the law.
Rom 13:9 For this, Thou shalt not commit adultery, Thou shalt not kill, Thou shalt not steal, Thou shalt not bear false witness, Thou shalt not covet; and if there be any other commandment, it is briefly comprehended in this saying, namely, Thou shalt love thy neighbour as thyself.
Rom 13:10 Love worketh no ill to his neighbour: therefore love is the fulfilling of the law.

Most of those are pretty easy the coveting and bearing false witness.... not so easy. I mean I have a hard time being brutally honest with people on some things. For example, someone gives you a gift that you hate and rather than telling the truth, I would say I loved it, to keep from hurting their feelings. Is this breaking the moral law?
 
K

keepitsimple

Guest
#53
For what is the opposite of being moral? It's being immoral; And nowhere in God's Word does the Lord condone His people in being immoral.

Correct. God cannot and will not overlook our sins. And yet, His love for us is so great that He provided a way for us to be reconciled unto Himself ... thru His Son, our Lord and Saviour Jesus Christ's death on the cross ... taking the moral penalty for our immoral sins upon Himself ... and us being declared righteous by His precious grace thru faith in Jesus, His only begotten. God did for us in Christ what we couldn't do for ourselves. And still does.
 
H

Hesyasha

Guest
#54
In response to 1 Jn 3:8:

Of course, that wasn't the only thing that He came to do. There are other reasons, but I only put up the main reason, talked about in Hebrews.

In response to Eze 36 : 26-27 :

*[[Eze 36:26-27/KJV]]*

%v 26% A new heart also will I give you, and a new spirit will I put within you: and I will take away the stony heart out of your flesh, and I will give you an heart of flesh.

%v 27% And I will put my spirit within you, and cause you to walk in my statutes, and ye shall keep my judgments, and do them.


But what are statutes and judgments?

According to Merriam-Webster Dictionary, a statute is:

stat·ute
\ˈsta-(ˌ)chüt, -chət\
noun
: a written law that is formally created by a government
: a written rule or regulation

We're obviously not talking about government, so in this case, statutes are most likely talking about The mosaic laws.

A judgement is (so I'm not leaving it out) is:

judg·ment
\ˈjəj-mənt\noun

: an opinion or decision that is based on careful thought

But the focus here is the word statute.

%v 27% And I will put my spirit within you, and cause you to walk in my statutes, and ye shall keep my judgments, and do them.

Now that you know what statutes are, I'm pretty sure you understand this verse.

I'm not too sure what you meant by "what do you make of", so i just explained it a little.

If i didn't answer your question then i'll be happy to respond to you according to the Bible.
 
Dec 13, 2013
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#55
If you're stilling sinning, you still belong to the devil

1Pt:4:18:
18 And if the just man shall scarcely be saved, where shall the ungodly and the sinner appear?

Jn:9:31:
31 Now we know that God doth not hear sinners: but if a man be a server of God and doth his, will, him he heareth.


To be freed from sin means the devil no longer has power over you
 

posthuman

Senior Member
Jul 31, 2013
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#56
If you're stilling sinning, you still belong to the devil

1Pt:4:18:
18 And if the just man shall scarcely be saved, where shall the ungodly and the sinner appear?

Jn:9:31:
31 Now we know that God doth not hear sinners: but if a man be a server of God and doth his, will, him he heareth.


To be freed from sin means the devil no longer has power over you
what does Paul mean to say "sin shall no longer have dominion over you" or "no longer be your master" (Romans 6:14) ?
is "not mastering you" or "not having dominion over you" the same as never failing at all?

why does John say if we do sin, "
we have an advocate" in Christ (1 John 2:1) if he's writing to people who never sin?
why does he say anyone who claims to be without sin is a deceived and doesn't have the truth (1 John 1:8)?

why does Peter say the Lord is patient with us, if we have nothing to hope for patience over (2 Peter 3:9, 3:15)?

will a day come on this earth when i will no longer need His mercy?

how is it that the Devil no longer has power over us?
because we have made ourselves perfect?
or because Someone has made perfect atonement for us, even while we were ungodly & dead in a multitude of sins?
 

posthuman

Senior Member
Jul 31, 2013
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#57
is there "no condemnation for those who are in Christ" because we deserve none, or because God has shown us how great is His mercy and grace?
 
Dec 13, 2013
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#58
what does Paul mean to say "sin shall no longer have dominion over you" or "no longer be your master" (Romans 6:14) ?
is "not mastering you" or "not having dominion over you" the same as never failing at all?

why does John say if we do sin, "
we have an advocate" in Christ (1 John 2:1) if he's writing to people who never sin?
why does he say anyone who claims to be without sin is a deceived and doesn't have the truth (1 John 1:8)?

why does Peter say the Lord is patient with us, if we have nothing to hope for patience over (2 Peter 3:9, 3:15)?

will a day come on this earth when i will no longer need His mercy?

how is it that the Devil no longer has power over us?
because we have made ourselves perfect?
or because Someone has made perfect atonement for us, even while we were ungodly & dead in a multitude of sins?
Sin no more have dominion is exactly what I said, the devil will no longer have power over you.

When a person accepts Jesus, there is a transition which takes place over time. As one partakes of the graces given through the Church, those graces will transform a sinner into a non-sinner. John is talking about the persons in that transition.

The Lord is patient because he knows it takes time to transform from sinner to non-sinner

One becomes a non-sinner through Jesus' mercy, so why would you think you won't need it?

When we are "full of grace" there is no room for sin nor the devil's power over us. This is done through the graces offered through the Church Jesus started.

If you die in sin, you are going to hell - 1Cor:6:9-10
9 ¶ Know you not that the unjust shall not possess the kingdom of God? Do not err: Neither fornicators nor idolaters nor adulterers:
10 Nor the effeminate nor liers with mankind nor thieves nor covetous nor drunkards nor railers nor extortioners shall possess the kingdom of God.
 
Jun 23, 2015
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#60
Sin no more have dominion is exactly what I said, the devil will no longer have power over you.

When a person accepts Jesus, there is a transition which takes place over time. As one partakes of the graces given through the Church, those graces will transform a sinner into a non-sinner. John is talking about the persons in that transition.

The Lord is patient because he knows it takes time to transform from sinner to non-sinner

One becomes a non-sinner through Jesus' mercy, so why would you think you won't need it?

When we are "full of grace" there is no room for sin nor the devil's power over us. This is done through the graces offered through the Church Jesus started.

If you die in sin, you are going to hell - 1Cor:6:9-10
9 ¶ Know you not that the unjust shall not possess the kingdom of God? Do not err: Neither fornicators nor idolaters nor adulterers:
10 Nor the effeminate nor liers with mankind nor thieves nor covetous nor drunkards nor railers nor extortioners shall possess the kingdom of God.

Aw oh! I see a problem here with you bibleteacher

>>>>>>>>>>>>>>nor idolaters. Oh hey! Can you find me that scripture where God instructs us to pray to mary?