Which Bible?

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That WOULD make a difference, if it was true. The KJV is no more "written" by the inspiration of God than any other mainstream version is.

All main translations are TRANSLATED with the help of the Spirit, by MEN. The only "inspired" writings were the originals, that the apostles wrote. And Moses, etc.... you know... the originals.
If what you say is true then we don't have the pure inerrant word of God today. I don't believe that.
 
This post has the potential to start the argument over again. Personally I'd prefer that didn't happen. I haven't met a translation yet that didn't have shortcomings, errors, weaknesses, and flaws. However, the Scripture stands (Is 40:8) and is still God-breathed (2 Tim 3:16). :)
Have you ever considered that the short commings and errors could be on your part? Maybe the things that you believe are errors are actually a lack of understanding on your part.
 
Can you show some such lie?
And what do you do with 'lies' (I prefer term "errors") in KJV?
Jesus is not Gods only son.
A son of the gods was not in the fiery furnance.
Jesus did not have an origin.
The morinig star didnt fall from heaven.

There are no errors in the KJV only misunderstandings of the KJV.
 
Jesus is not Gods only son.
A son of the gods was not in the fiery furnance.
Jesus did not have an origin.
The morinig star didnt fall from heaven.

There are no errors in the KJV only misunderstandings of the KJV.

Can you show such lies directly from some common translation like NIV?

When you can say there are no errors in KJV, only misunderstandings, why cannot I say that about NIV?
 
Does anyone know when the first words of the NT was written??

Little hint it was written by a non-religious person.
 
Can you show such lies directly from some common translation like NIV?

When you can say there are no errors in KJV, only misunderstandings, why cannot I say that about NIV?

Sure, I'll post one and we can discuss it. Call it a lie a mistranslation or mistake, it doesn't matter. This is not the real Jesus and when you put all these "mistranslations" together it paints a picture of another Jesus and another gospel.

John 3:16New International Version (NIV)

16 For God so loved the world that he gave his one and only Son, that whoever believes in him shall not perish but have eternal life.

Is it possible to say that there are no errors in the NIV ony misunderstanding? Sure it is, but is it true? If it's true then it should be a provable fact, just like it can be proven in the KJV. In the example we are starting with what would be the misunderstanding in that verse. Why does the NIV say that Jesus is God's one and only son?
 
ISAIAH 55:10 "Rain and snow come down from the sky. They do not go back again until they water the earth. They make it sprout and grow so that it produces seed for farmers and food for people to eat.
ISAIAH 55:11 My word, which comes from my mouth, is like the rain and snow. It will not come back to me without results. It will accomplish whatever I want and achieve whatever I send it to do."


God's word is identified as those words that achieve whatever God sends it to do.
 
Sure, I'll post one and we can discuss it. Call it a lie a mistranslation or mistake, it doesn't matter. This is not the real Jesus and when you put all these "mistranslations" together it paints a picture of another Jesus and another gospel.

John 3:16New International Version (NIV)

[FONT=&]16 For God so loved the world that he gave his one and only Son, that whoever believes in him shall not perish but have eternal life.[/FONT]

Is it possible to say that there are no errors in the NIV ony misunderstanding? Sure it is, but is it true? If it's true then it should be a provable fact, just like it can be proven in the KJV. In the example we are starting with what would be the misunderstanding in that verse. Why does the NIV say that Jesus is God's one and only son?

Greek "monogenés" - oneborn. Such word does not exist in English, so English translation must to say it somehow... 'one and only' is a wrong interpretation? Why?

BTW the same word is in Hebrews 11:7, saying that Isaac was the "only and one" son of Abraham. KJV says Isaac was the only begotten son of Abraham... what makes more sense?

How can you prove there are no errors in KJV?
 
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Technically, when John 3:16 was written, wasn't Jesus God's only son, begotten or adopted?

Didn't we believers become sons after we were saved? Which happened after the resurrection?
 
Have you ever considered that the short commings and errors could be on your part? Maybe the things that you believe are errors are actually a lack of understanding on your part.

Well, let's just make this personal, why don't we? I can say exactly the same thing to you. Let's not go there. Rather, let's keep this focused on the Scripture.
 
Well, let's just make this personal, why don't we? I can say exactly the same thing to you. Let's not go there. Rather, let's keep this focused on the Scripture.

Why do you take that as a personal attack. I'm not insulting you, I'm asking you a question. Is it not possible that some of the errors you think are in the KJV comes from a lack of biblical knowledge?
 
Technically, when John 3:16 was written, wasn't Jesus God's only son, begotten or adopted?

Didn't we believers become sons after we were saved? Which happened after the resurrection?

No. Adam is called a son of God and so are the angels. And that's my point, the newer translations are wrong by saying so.
 
Greek "monogenés" - oneborn. Such word does not exist in English, so English translation must to say it somehow... 'one and only' is a wrong interpretation? Why?

BTW the same word is in Hebrews 11:7, saying that Isaac was the "only and one" son of Abraham. KJV says Isaac was the only begotten son of Abraham... what makes more sense?

How can you prove there are no errors in KJV?

Aside from the inability to translate monogenés word for word, which is irrelevant any way, because the purpose of the translation should be to convey the meaning of the original language, the English version is still wrong to say Jesus is God's one and only son.
 
I wonder if back then people had the same discussions when the Septuagint was written in Greek to translate what the Hebrew scriptures said.

Here is an interesting article that suggests Jesus did this:


"Many of the Jews in Jesus' day used the Septuagint as their Bible. Quite naturally, the early Christians also used the Septuagint in their meetings and for personal reading; and many of the New Testament apostles quoted it when they wrote the Gospels and Epistles in Greek. "

"Jesus and the Apostles: studied, memorized, used, quoted, and read most often from the Bible of their day, the Septuagint. Since Matthew wrote primarily to convince the Jews that Jesus of Nazareth was indeed their promised Messiah, it follows as a matter of course that his Gospel is saturated with the Hebrew Scriptures.

Yet, when Jesus quotes the Old Testament in Matthew, He uses the Hebrew text only 10% of the time, but the Greek LXX translation—90% of the time!
Amazingly, Jesus and Paul used the LXX as their primary Bible. It was just like the Bible each of us holds in our hands, not the original Hebrew Old Testament, but a translation of the Hebrew into Greek."

What Bible Did Jesus Use? - Bible Study Tips
 
Does anyone know when the first words of the NT was written??

Little hint it was written by a non-religious person.

gee no takers in the question I have a thread stating this as well, come on now just for fun this isn't some magical question.
 
Hi
I enjoy many versions. Some of my favorites are New Living, New King James, Old King James, and also my KJ2000.

Hope that helps.
 
How many versions of the Septuagint were there? And if more than one, did they agree? I don't know anything about it, just asking.
 
I wonder if back then people had the same discussions when the Septuagint was written in Greek to translate what the Hebrew scriptures said.

Here is an interesting article that suggests Jesus did this:


"Many of the Jews in Jesus' day used the Septuagint as their Bible. Quite naturally, the early Christians also used the Septuagint in their meetings and for personal reading; and many of the New Testament apostles quoted it when they wrote the Gospels and Epistles in Greek. "

"Jesus and the Apostles: studied, memorized, used, quoted, and read most often from the Bible of their day, the Septuagint. Since Matthew wrote primarily to convince the Jews that Jesus of Nazareth was indeed their promised Messiah, it follows as a matter of course that his Gospel is saturated with the Hebrew Scriptures.

Yet, when Jesus quotes the Old Testament in Matthew, He uses the Hebrew text only 10% of the time, but the Greek LXX translation—90% of the time!
Amazingly, Jesus and Paul used the LXX as their primary Bible. It was just like the Bible each of us holds in our hands, not the original Hebrew Old Testament, but a translation of the Hebrew into Greek."

What Bible Did Jesus Use? - Bible Study Tips

And surely the people in those days were multilingual as well, I wouldnt mind learning another language guess that's on my bucket list as well lol... for coarse knowing of other languages and how to write and speak in these other languages could bring greater understanding of past scripture translations without someone having to translate the verses for us English speaking folks. lol...
 
Aside from the inability to translate monogenés word for word, which is irrelevant any way, because the purpose of the translation should be to convey the meaning of the original language, the English version is still wrong to say Jesus is God's one and only son.

Why is that wrong?

And how can you prove KJV is without error as you said earlier? :)