Which Bible?

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KJV1611 said:
The number 9 in the bible represents fruit bearing... human gestation is 9 months, there are 9 fruits of the spirit and so on. The KJV translators PURPOSELY translated pneuma Holy Spirit 7 times and Holy Ghost 90 times so that the number of occurences of each would equal their respective numbers. i.e. the Holy Ghost causes the believer to produce fruit hence Holy Ghost is found 90 times in the KJV. My question is does this come from the Holy Spirit or were the KJV translator so smart that they made this happen on their own?
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It does not match with what I have found:

If we count how many times are these words used, we will get:
Holy Spirit (10x) and Holy Ghost (91x)

Bible: King James Version -- Simple Searches

If we count how many verses have one or more of these words, we will get:
Holy Spirit (7x)
Holy Ghost (88x)

http://kjvbible.net/cgi-bin/search.cgi


How did you get 7 and 90?
 
trofimus said:
For KJV1611 or John146:

Can you explain me this? (I know you must like me very much lol)

"They are all gone out of the way, they are together become unprofitable; there is none that doeth good, no, not one. Their throat is an open sepulchre; with their tongues they have used deceit; the poison of asps is under their lips: Whose mouth is full of cursing and bitterness: Their feet are swift to shed blood: Destruction and misery are in their ways: And the way of peace have they not known: There is no fear of God before their eyes."
(KJV Romans 3:12-18)

"They are all gone aside, they are all together become filthy: there is none that doeth good, no, not one." [Psalm ends]
(Psalm 14:3 – KJV)

"They are all gone out of the way, they are together become good for nothing, there is none that does good, no not one. Their throat is an open sepulchre; with their tongues they have used deceit; the poison of asps is under their lips: whose mouth is full of cursing and bitterness; their feet are swift to shed blood: destruction and misery are in their ways; and the way of peace they have not known: there is no fear of God before their eyes."
(Psalm 14:3 – LXX)

Which OT version is Paul using?
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Trofimus this is just like all the other Old Testament - New Testament errors you bring up. Paul is not quoting Psalm 14:3, he is adding to the Old Testament words to give more meaning. That's the purpose of the entire New Testament. The New Testament is hidden all over the Old Testament in shadows and obscure writing, the New Testament gives light to those Old Testament shadows.
 
KJV1611 said:
Trofimus this is just like all the other Old Testament - New Testament errors you bring up. Paul is not quoting Psalm 14:3, he is adding to the Old Testament words to give more meaning. That's the purpose of the entire New Testament. The New Testament is hidden all over the Old Testament in shadows and obscure writing, the New Testament gives light to those Old Testament shadows.
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So Paul is adding the same sentences that are in the LXX Old Testament? What is the probability for such coincidence? :)
 
trofimus said:
It does not match with what I have found:

If we count how many times are these words used, we will get:
Holy Spirit (10x) and Holy Ghost (91x)

Bible: King James Version -- Simple Searches

If we count how many verses have one or more of these words, we will get:
Holy Spirit (7x)
Holy Ghost (88x)

http://kjvbible.net/cgi-bin/search.cgi


How did you get 7 and 90?
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They are including the "Extra books" that the KJ version had to begin with - that's where they get the 10 for Holy Spirit....like the Book of Wisdom.

The 91 does come up when you do a search on Holy Ghost usage in the bible but there again it includes the one mention in 2 Esdras which was in the KJV.
 
Grace777x70 said:
They are including the "Extra books" that the KJ version had to begin with - that's where they get the 10 for Holy Spirit....like the Book of Wisdom.

The 91 does come up when you do a search on Holy Ghost usage in the bible but there again it includes the one mention in 2 Esdras which was in the KJV.
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I dont get it... they count usage in some books but they do not use these books?
 
trofimus said:
It does not match with what I have found:

If we count how many times are these words used, we will get:
Holy Spirit (10x) and Holy Ghost (91x)

Bible: King James Version -- Simple Searches

If we count how many verses have one or more of these words, we will get:
Holy Spirit (7x)
Holy Ghost (88x)

http://kjvbible.net/cgi-bin/search.cgi


How did you get 7 and 90?
Click to expand...

Don't know where that comes from, it's not KJV because there is no such verse in the KJV. Maybe it's apocrypha.

[22] But if I have found grace before thee, send the Holy Ghost into me, and I shall write all that hath been done in the world since the beginning, which were written in thy law, that men may find thy path, and that they which will live in the latter days may live.
 
KJV1611 said:
Don't know where that comes from, it's not KJV because there is no such verse in the KJV.

[22] But if I have found grace before thee, send the Holy Ghost into me, and I shall write all that hath been done in the world since the beginning, which were written in thy law, that men may find thy path, and that they which will live in the latter days may live.
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Where do your numbers come from? Can you post your source?
 
Grace777x70 said:
They are including the "Extra books" that the KJ version had to begin with - that's where they get the 10 for Holy Spirit....like the Book of Wisdom.

The 91 does come up when you do a search on Holy Ghost usage in the bible but there again it includes the one mention in 2 Esdras which was in the KJV.
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2 Esdras is not cannon, so it's not in the KJV SCRIPTURE.
 
Here is another thing about the usage of the term Holy Ghost - it was used in other translations before the KJV came out. It was a common usage for the word "spirit" back in those times. The translators of the KJV just "copied" what the others already had done before.

Not only does the King James Bible use the term the Holy Ghost, but all earlier English Bibles did as well. The Holy Ghost is found in Wycliffe's translation 1395, Tyndale’s New Testament 1525, Coverdale 1535, Bishops' Bible 1568, the Geneva Bible 1599,
 
Grace777x70 said:
Here is another thing about the usage of the term Holy Ghost - it was used in other translations before the KJV came out. It was a common usage for the word "spirit" back in those times. The translators of the KJV just "copied" what the others already had done before.

Not only does the King James Bible use the term the Holy Ghost, but all earlier English Bibles did as well. The Holy Ghost is found in Wycliffe's translation 1395, Tyndale’s New Testament 1525, Coverdale 1535, Bishops' Bible 1568, the Geneva Bible 1599,
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That has no bearing on the number counts... the patterns exist so either the KJV writers knew that or some spirit lead them or it was pure luck that the occurences turned out that way.

Keep in mind Holy Ghost/Holy Spirit is only one of many patterns that I know about and Im sure there are many more that I don't know about.
 
Here's an oddity for you.....my mama's Bible was also my grandma's before her, and my great grandma's. I can't say when it was published, but it's a KJV. I noticed something odd in the very first chapter Genesis 1:2. In Mama's Bible it reads "and the Earth was MADE void." In my more current KJV, it reads "and the earth was without form, and void." Some people believe the word "made" means we aren't on the first earth. No I don't believe that, but it does pose a question....
I wonder why the change in the same verse of the same version?

I don't know that one version is any better than another, considering flawed humans translated the words multiple times. However, I trust God to lead me where I need to be, no matter how flawed anything on Earth MIGHT be.
 
NewWine said:
Here's an oddity for you.....my mama's Bible was also my grandma's before her, and my great grandma's. I can't say when it was published, but it's a KJV. I noticed something odd in the very first chapter Genesis 1:2. In Mama's Bible it reads "and the Earth was MADE void." In my more current KJV, it reads "and the earth was without form, and void." Some people believe the word "made" means we aren't on the first earth. No I don't believe that, but it does pose a question....
I wonder why the change in the same verse of the same version?

I don't know that one version is any better than another, considering flawed humans translated the words multiple times. However, I trust God to lead me where I need to be, no matter how flawed anything on Earth MIGHT be.
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Amen! None of this is salvation issues.. I got saved with no bible, I was an atheist when God came and got me.
 
Trofimus the search results are tired and true, I've been using Pure Bible Search since it came out and I've never found it to be wrong. I used QuickVerse before that and never found it to be wrong either.
 
Getting back to my question and my question is to all of you. The patterns exist in the KJV and that can't be denied. Why does it exist is my question. Were the KJV translators smart beyond measure or does this hint that there may have been divine intervention? And option 3 lol blind luck.
 
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