I am not a native English speaker so I do not use English Bible on regular basis, but what I have seen on biblehub - parallel translations, it seems to me that NASB is almost always the closest to the Greek original and still simple and understandable.
Look for example at John 1:18.
Θεὸν οὐδεὶς ἑώρακεν πώποτε· μονογενὴς Θεὸς ὁ ὢν εἰς τὸν κόλπον τοῦ Πατρὸς, ἐκεῖνος ἐξηγήσατο.
Nobody has ever seen God. Only begotten God who is in the bosom of Father, He explained. (my translation).
"No one has seen God at any time; the only begotten God who is in the bosom of the Father, He has explained Him." (NASB)
- nothing wrong there
"No one has ever seen God, but the one and only Son, who is himself God and is in closest relationship with the Father, has made him known." (NIV)
- What??
"No one has ever seen God. But the unique One, who is himself God, is near to the Father's heart. He has revealed God to us." (NLT)
- What??
"No one has ever seen God; the only God, who is at the Father’s side, he has made him known." (ESV)
- OK, but not sure why they used the word "side"
"No one has ever seen God, but the one and only Son, who is Himself God and is at the Father's side, has made Him known." (BSB)
- "side" again, one and only instead of only begotten
"No one has ever yet seen God. The only begotten God, the One being in the bosom of the Father, He has made Him known." (BLB)
- close, but not as simple for reading as NASB
"No man hath seen God at any time; the only begotten Son, which is in the bosom of the Father, he hath declared him." (KJV)
- close, except they do not have quite important word "God" there.
I did not want to make this post too long.
So when somebody asked me what English translation I would use, it would probably by NASB.