That's interesting. I have heard commentaries say that "The Lord's day" meant "the Emperors Day". It was a day that those in that time designed as a holiday or special theme day to honor the Emperor or Caesar of Rome.
The Emperor had put John on the isle of Patmos and John went off the island "in the spirit" on the very day that was to recognize the Emperor and to be shown things by the real Lord. It could have been signifying that it doesn't matter what the world tries to do to Christians - the real Lord Himself has the final say about things.
I have no idea whether this is true or not. It would have meant something to those that the book was written to in their time period.
I guess that could be...I can't really see any reason why john would feel it necessary to write which day of the week he received the revelation though...but I suppose the Spirit could have instructed him to carefully record which day of the week. In past though, like with Daniel, days of the MONTH and then the year were given...but john doesn't do that. So he would be giving just the day of some given week...though with accounts of Jesus' death, they do carefully lay out which day of the week everything occurred without mentioning the month or year...so, considering that the purpose of most of revelation, which was to give very specific details of the coming day of the Lord that the prophets wrote of which was coming, I think it makes more sense to me that he was saying he was actually seeing the events of that day of the Lord rather than simply telling which day of some week in some nonspecific year that he received the vision.
But as I said, it would require the knowledge of the two languages and how they translate into English, as with the comparison I gave between orange juice in English versus juice of orange in Spanish. I could try to research the two language structures(Hebrew and Greek) but it would be a lot of work that I don't have the time for ������
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