Tongues Again???

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VCO

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Where do you get this from? The Deuteronomy test for a prophet was whether his predictions came to past. Look up 'sign' in the Old Testament. In many cases, a sign was a fulfilled prophecy. The prophet that prophesied to Eli gave him a sign, that his sons Hophni and Phineas would die in one day. There are a number of signs of this sort, of the type that fit with the test of a prophet.

The Jews said of John, the he did 'no miracle'. Miracles can be signs, but there is also the fulfilled prophecy sign. Which would did the Jews seek for Jesus to give? He'd already just done a miracle, feeding the five thousand. They asked for a sign. He gave them the sign of Jonah, which was a prediction that He would rise from the dead. When the Jews wanted a sign that he had the authority to cleanse the temple, what sign did He give? He said they would destroy 'this temple' and in three days He would raise it up, another prophecy of the resurrection.
If we look in the Old Testament, it would seem a lot of Israelites went after the false prophets, rather the true ones during certain periods of time, anyway.

Paul's conclusion based on the verse is that it is a sign to 'unbelievers.' He does not say unbelieving Jews.

The original prophecy, fulilled in the short-term in the captivity, was to the nation of Israel, more specifically to the northern kingdom. Paul interprets it to speak of a larger principle. Even Gentiles who reject speaking in tongues are following a pattern that we see with Israelites who rejected God even though He communicated to them through men of other tongues and other lips.

When the Assyrians marched the Israelites naked into captivity, maybe with a rod to poke at them to keep them in line or a whip, or however they did it, this was a message the Israelites were supposed to hear.

There are other scriptures that had a more immediate fulfillment or application. 'Out of Egypt have I called my Son applies to Ephraim, which was the leading tribe of the northern kingdom, but applies prophetically to Christ.

You also seem to think that whenever speaking in tongues occurs, that it has to be functioning as a sign to unbelievers. Paul says If an unbeliever or uninstructed person comes into the assembly in his example (a part I see you generally don't quote when making your arguments.) Nowadays, a lot of people think of a church service as the place for evangelism. Back then, the apostles preached in synagogues and public places. Church meetings are for the edification of the saints. It is legitimate to speak in tongues with no unbelievers present at all, in church, if it is interpreted for the edification of the saints.

Tongues are for a sign to unbelievers, but tongues are not only for a sign to unbelievers. Divers tongues are among the gifts given to the church to 'profit withall'. That is also a purpose of the gift. Tongues and interpretation together edify the local assembly. That is also a legitimate purpose of the gift. No unbeliever has to be present for this to take place.

Even if someone took this rigid, unjustifiable view of yours, it would not prove that tongues have no place, since there are plenty of unbelieving Jews. My guess is you would be opposed to speaking in tongues among Messianic Jews, even if they had managed to bring some unbelieving Jews into their meeting.



Heremeutical yoga. You are stretching the text, here. The verse you quote about unbelievers that you would want to make applies to unbelieving Jews says,
"With men of other tongues and other lips will I speak unto this people; and yet for all that will they not hear me, saith the Lord"

Is this true of the Jewish brethren who went with Peter to whom Peter said they had 'received the Holy Ghost the same as we'. Would you say they hadn't heard God? What about Jesus teaching that 'My sheep hear my voice.' Why would these people be following Jesus if they would not hear God?
Acts 10:45-47 (GWT)
45 All the believers who were circumcised and who had come with Peter were amazed that the gift of the Holy Spirit had been poured on people who were not Jewish.
46 They heard these non-Jewish people speaking in other languages and praising God. Then Peter said,

47 “No one can refuse to baptize these people with water. They have received the Holy Spirit in the same way that we did.”


Why do you use this loosey dynamic equivalence translation when discussing matters of doctrine? Formal equivalence is better if you are going to make points off the turn of phrase in the text.

The KJV of Acts 10:45 says, "Can any man forbid water, that these should not be baptized, which have received the Holy Ghost as well as we?"

I remembered that 'the same as we.' In either case, the passage makes just as much sense if there were no fire or wind. Neither is mentioned in the passage.

You really do not read what I post, do you. I am not going to rerepeat myself, and just may have to add you to my ignore list.
 
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presidente

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zone,

Did you post the message from John MacArthur: " John MacArthur - Is Speaking in Tongues Demonic? 1/3" because you agree with it?

This is a sermon where John MacAthur attributes a manifestation of the Spirit.... in the actual Bible itself... to pagan sources.

I've heard it before, and I've pulled up the text, but I don't know where the cut-off is on the video. But I am commenting based on the text on his ministry website.

MacArthur misuses the Greek in this sermon badly. A trigger warning to those who are sensitive to reading blasphemous interpretations of scripture. But this is his commentary on I Corinthians 14
“For he that speaks in a tongue speaks not unto men, but unto God; for no man understands him; however, in the spirit he speaks mysteries.” Now listen. What’d he say? He that speaks in a tongue speaks to men…speaks rather not to men, but to God. And the Greek literally says, “But to a god.”

What you have Paul doing here is saying, “Look, you people with your pagan ecstasies are not doing what all spiritual gifts were given to do, that is to speak to men. But rather, your ecstasies are speaking to a God. Nobody understands what you’re saying; you are all wrapped up in speaking pagan mysteries.” Do you see what he’s saying? Those aren’t the mustērion of God; those aren't the mysteries that Paul gave; those are the mysteries of paganism. He that speaks in a tongue speaks not unto men.
Let's look that up. Does that mean 'but to a god'? Is that how Paul is using it?

ἀλλὰ Θεῷ

The KJV says this means 'but to God.' John MacArthur taught that it should be translated 'a god.'

Which God were the authors of I Thessalonians pleasing?

I Thessalonians 2
4But as we have been approved by God to be entrusted with the gospel, even so we speak, not as pleasing men, but God who tests our hearts.

Clearly, Paul, Silvanus, and Timothy were seeing to please the true God, not some pagan deity.

And what of 'mysteries.' Paul always uses the Greek word translated 'mysteries' here in a positive sense. He writes of the mystery of Christ, and the mystery that was kept secret since the world began. We never find Paul using this word to refer to the mystery religions.

Maybe they don't teach this level of Greek in double honorary doctorate school. I don't know. I wonder what goes through a preacher's mind when he teaches this kind of error. Does John MacArthur know that the Greek could either refer to God or a god, but asserts that it means 'a god' because he wants to convince his audience? Would that be honest?

Does he really not know Greek well enough to differentiate, but wants to sound authoritative, so he acts like an expert where his knowledge his shaky. (This is a huge problem with preachers of various backgrounds that irks me badly.)

Is he so confident in his ability to guess what the Greek in a passage means that he just assumes its true.

It is clear that this is a horrific butchering of the text.

John MacArthur also said this,
And some Bible scholars believe that that’s because when Paul was using the singular, he was referring to their ecstatic gibberish, which all was one kind, a tongue, a gibberish. But when he refers to the true gift, it is languages, like in Acts, and every man heard him in his own language. So in verses 1-4 he’s saying, “Your false gift is all wrong.” But in verse 5, “The right thing is all right when it’s interpreted in its place.”
Why repeat a junk interpretation in a sermon without pointing out that it is a junk interpretation? This is clearly false. Paul says "I speak with tongues more than ye all" in the plural. He commands the church to allow 'if any man speak in an unknown tongue' in verse 27. One can easily use an interlinear to debunk this argument, checking the use of singular and plurals by looking at the marks under the words in Greek. You don't even have to know Greek. You can use scripture4all's interlinear. A lot of 'Greek myths' taught by preachers like this can be easily debunked.

Some people think of John MacArthur as a great scholar. I don't know about all his stuff. I read some seemingly sensible stuff from him on a commentary on Matthew. He is also bold confronting the promotion of homosexuality as normal and other topics on TV news shows. That's good. But on this issue, his use of scripture seems more like the junk that Murray guy used to teach on Shepherds Chapel. It's just garbage, twisting the text, misusing Greek, and attributing the work of the Spirit to pagan sources, which is a bad and disturbing thing to do. I sincerely believe a pile of cow manure has more value for mankind that John MacArthur's twisting of scripture posted in the above quote.

Paul wants the believer who spoke in a 'tongue' singular to interpret it, or for someone else to, for the church to be edified. Paul would not have taught to interpret false pagan ramblings. It is notable that John MacArthur departs from verse by verse teaching on this subject. His assertions just will not hold water.

Christians should oppose this type of scripture twisting. Cessationists should oppose this type of scripture twisting.

Zone, do you think Paul wanted the Corinthians to interpret false pagan mystery religion utterances in order to edify the church? Isn't that a blasphemous interpretation?
 

presidente

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You really do not read what I post, do you. I am not going to rerepeat myself, and just may have to add you to my ignore list.
Yes, I did. If there is some area where I really did misunderstand, misinterpret, or misconstrue something you said, I'll apologize for it. I can't edit older messages, but I can do that. I am responding to the words you write as I read and understand them. I am not trying to misconstrue you.

From my perspective, it seems like when I point out where something you write either flat out contradicts scripture, isn't a reasonable way to interpret the text, or isn't the only reasonable way to interpret the text, you write something like this. You say you don't want to interact, say you want to drop out of the conversation, now it's the ignore list. To me, it seems like you either can't respond to the holes people poke in your views, or maybe you are just so convinced you are right that you don't want to bother to really think through the scriptures and our arguments about them.

I see that you pick out a few scriptures here and there, interpret them in a certain way, and think that is the key to interpreting the whole issue. But you ignore a lot of other scriptures that contradict your view, like the argument Paul was making about tongues throughout I Corinthians. You pick a prooftext of two verses out of that passage and interpret in a way that doesn't fit with the rest of the passage.
 

VCO

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Merry Christmas
everyone!
 
J

jaybird88

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where does Jesus teach on tongues? anyone know?
 
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I was saved in a small Baptist church at an early age and years later I got into the charismatic movement because I could see from the scriptures that the gifts of the Spirit were never taken from the church, cessationalism is simply not true. So I have a clear understanding from a scriptural position and also from experience of both positions, fundamentals that do not believe in tongues, and Pentecostals who do believe in tongues. My advise, if you are Pentecostal and like to practice speaking in tongues, then do so, but do not try to convert fundamentals into tongue speaking if they are not interested. I have found that fundamental non tongue speakers are often times more grounded in their walk with Christ then the tongue speakers. I have also found that tongues speakers tend to see them selves in a superior position claiming to go around filled with the Spirit. That is nonsense, most all those who are really off the wall are Pentecostal. One does not become a spiritual giant because one can speak in a tongue, however if you want to practice speaking in tongues do so, just do not flaunt this experience as if it elevates you above other Christians.
 

VCO

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where does Jesus teach on tongues? anyone know?
I believe the word battalogeo's origin is a reference to the style of tongues used in the Greek Mystery religions such as the Worship of Apollo. In a intense study of Tongues decades ago, I learned that they taught their followers, as long as at least 300 years before Christ, to pray in an ecstatic utterance style of Tongues that they claimed was speaking to the gods. From what I studied, it mirrored the charismatic style of tongues used today.

Matthew 6:7-10 (HCSB)
[SUP]7 [/SUP] When you pray, don’t babble {battalogeo} like the idolaters, since they imagine they’ll be heard for their many words.
[SUP]8 [/SUP] Don’t be like them, because your Father knows the things you need before you ask Him.
[SUP]9[/SUP] “Therefore, you should pray like this{After this manner therefore pray ye KJV}: Our Father in heaven, Your name be honored as holy.
[SUP]10 [/SUP] Your kingdom come. Your will be done on earth as it is in heaven.

 
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J

jaybird88

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I believe the word battalogeo's origin is a reference to the style of tongues used in the Greek Mystery religions such as the Worship of Apollo. In a intense study of Tongues decades ago, I learned that they taught their followers, as long as at least 300 years before Christ, to pray in an ecstatic utterance style of Tongues that they claimed was speaking to the gods. From what I studied, it mirrored the charismatic style of tongues used today.

Matthew 6:7-10 (HCSB)
[SUP]7 [/SUP] When you pray, don’t babble {battalogeo} like the idolaters, since they imagine they’ll be heard for their many words.
[SUP]8 [/SUP] Don’t be like them, because your Father knows the things you need before you ask Him.
[SUP]9[/SUP] “Therefore, you should pray like this{After this manner therefore pray ye KJV}: Our Father in heaven, Your name be honored as holy.
[SUP]10 [/SUP] Your kingdom come. Your will be done on earth as it is in heaven.
yeah i remember us discussing this before on one of the many tongue threads.
my point about Jesus teaching is from Mark 16:17 (the only time Jesus mentions tongues)
And these signs will accompany those who believe: In my name they will drive out demons; they will speak in new tongues;

i hear many go to this passage "Jesus taught tongues" ok what kind of tongues? this is the great commission, the 12 were being sent out into the world, all 12 were Jews and it only makes sense they spoke their native language, the 12 went all the world to India, Spain, Africa etc they taught the gospel in the language (tongues) of those new nations. they were commanded to bring this message to this world, not the heavens, the angel language would not apply, not even make sense with Jesus and the great commission.
the one time Jesus mentions tongues i think its safe to say He was not referring to an angel language.
 

88

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Speaking as a"tongue talker"---you are right---to act superior goexs against love----if a tongue talker is on fire for God--'-his desire is to share an experience that brings us closer to that Love....boasting is self is dung....my only hope is you could experience what God has....Grace and Peace
 

presidente

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yeah i remember us discussing this before on one of the many tongue threads.
my point about Jesus teaching is from Mark 16:17 (the only time Jesus mentions tongues)
And these signs will accompany those who believe: In my name they will drive out demons; they will speak in new tongues;

i hear many go to this passage "Jesus taught tongues" ok what kind of tongues? this is the great commission, the 12 were being sent out into the world, all 12 were Jews and it only makes sense they spoke their native language, the 12 went all the world to India, Spain, Africa etc they taught the gospel in the language (tongues) of those new nations. they were commanded to bring this message to this world, not the heavens, the angel language would not apply, not even make sense with Jesus and the great commission.
There is not a case of or a reference to the early disciples ever actually preaching the Gospel in tongues. In Acts 2, we read about the disciples speaking in tongues about the wonderful works of God. But Peter had to stand up and preach the Gospel after the speaking in tongues was finished.

We also see in I Corinthians that when speaking in tongues was done, no one understood, so in the assembly, someone had to interpret for others to be edified.

Assuming that speaking in tongues was a tool for evangelism is assuming something that the Bible never actually teaches or gives an example of.
 

presidente

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I believe the word battalogeo's origin is a reference to the style of tongues used in the Greek Mystery religions such as the Worship of Apollo. In a intense study of Tongues decades ago, I learned that they taught their followers, as long as at least 300 years before Christ, to pray in an ecstatic utterance style of Tongues that they claimed was speaking to the gods. From what I studied, it mirrored the charismatic style of tongues used today.


I've asked you to present some sort of primary source evidence for the story that the Apollo priest would tell people to 'Say batta batta' and that this is the meaning of the word. That doesn't sound like an ecstatic utterance, anyway, so your own theories seem to be self contradictory on this.

If you look up the Wikipedia article on the verse in question, there are numerous theories on what the word means. The reason is because of the lack of usage of it in Greek literature. This page, which is focused on defending Roman Catholicism from Protestant polemics using the verse argues that the way to understand it is to look at early translations, and the author believes it refers to much speaking. <https://archive.org/stream/MN41685ucmf_0/MN41685ucmf_0_djvu.txt?. I have seen 'much speaking' as the translation as well.

I don't see where you get any evidence that it referred to pagan ecstatic speech. Making up a story about ecstatic pagans repeating 'bata', or an Apollo priest telling people to say 'batta' is not evidence. You just guess that such things happened, but that would be a guess, and the odds on guessing history write with no evidence isn't high. Repeating someone else's theory or guess, even from some kind of sermon or commentary isn't any more reliable. Is there a primary source that says that either of these is the meaning of battalogeo?

Why believe something without evidence that leads to a belief in a contradiction between scriptures? Why create some kind of contradiction between the Corinthian believers, who would speak in languages they did not know, which the congregation could not understand without the gift of interpretation, and the words of Jesus?


Matthew 6:7-10 (HCSB)
[SUP]7 [/SUP] When you pray, don’t babble {battalogeo} like the idolaters, since they imagine they’ll be heard for their many words.
[SUP]8 [/SUP] Don’t be like them, because your Father knows the things you need before you ask Him.
[SUP]9[/SUP] “Therefore, you should pray like this{After this manner therefore pray ye KJV}: Our Father in heaven, Your name be honored as holy. [/quote]

Notice how to the point the pray we call 'the Lord's prayer' which some call 'the Our Father' actually is. The pagans may have thought they had to speak much to get their gods to hear them or that they had to somehow persuade them to hear them. The Lord's prayer is quite short. The contrast can be seen between the idea of praying unnecessarily long prayers and the Lord's prayer.
 

VCO

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yeah i remember us discussing this before on one of the many tongue threads.
my point about Jesus teaching is from Mark 16:17 (the only time Jesus mentions tongues)
And these signs will accompany those who believe: In my name they will drive out demons; they will speak in new tongues;

i hear many go to this passage "Jesus taught tongues" ok what kind of tongues? this is the great commission, the 12 were being sent out into the world, all 12 were Jews and it only makes sense they spoke their native language, the 12 went all the world to India, Spain, Africa etc they taught the gospel in the language (tongues) of those new nations. they were commanded to bring this message to this world, not the heavens, the angel language would not apply, not even make sense with Jesus and the great commission.
the one time Jesus mentions tongues i think its safe to say He was not referring to an angel language.
I have no problem with that, because the Jews were scattered through the known world. The sign gifts were for unbelieving Jews to convince them that these men spoke from GOD, these new words that became our New Testament. Many of them would become converted because it was a fulfillment of Old Testament prophecy. The last verse of Mark is where we learn the purpose for giving those sign gifts, but clearly because that purpose came to an end, so did the sign gifts. Here is that verse in Young's Literal Translation:


Mark 16:20 (YLT)

[SUP]20 [/SUP] and they, having gone forth, did preach everywhere, the Lord working with them, and confirming the word, through the signs following. Amen.


Now JESUS also confirmed His resurrection by appearing to Jews, because the Jews required a sign before they would believe wholeheartedly. Notice, even the Disciples struggled with having that ability to Believe that wholeheartedly, when the women came back from the tomb. And when JESUS had confirmed HIS Resurrection to enough of His Jewish followers to make it solidly CONFIRMED, what happened? HE ascended into heaven and CEASED to appear before believers as a sign of His Resurrection.

So did the Apostles and Disciples continue to speak in Tongues with unbelieving Jews hearing every word in their own native dialect after the New Testament was completed? No that genuine Gift of Tongues ceased in mainline Churches all together. The ecstatic utterence style of tongues continued as popular as ever in the Mystery Religions, with an occasional appearance throughout history in Pseudo Christian Cults.

In Bethel Bible School in Topeka, KS in 1901 the modern day movement that became known as Charismatic Tongues began. However it really did not catch on until the Azuza Street Revival in L.A. in 1906. This Charismatic Tongues was NOT like what the Apostles and Disciples did, in that NO JEWS WERE HEARING IN THEIR OWN NATIVE DIALECT, every word that was said. It was just ecstatic utterances, that mirror the pagan tongues. That is why most mainline Churches do not believe that the Charismatic Tongues are the real Gift of Tongues.

Malachi 3:6 (NKJV)
[SUP]6 [/SUP] "For I am the LORD, I do not change;
Therefore you are not consumed, O sons of Jacob.
 

BenFTW

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Sign gifts is a categorical error, which can be plainly seen by reading Corinthians and understanding the ways in which the apostle Paul used the gift. Cessationism is not biblical, in fact it is against God's will and Word.
 

presidente

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However it really did not catch on until the Azuza Street Revival in L.A. in 1906. This Charismatic Tongues was NOT like what the Apostles and Disciples did, in that NO JEWS WERE HEARING IN THEIR OWN NATIVE DIALECT, every word that was said. It was just ecstatic utterances,
Before you make these pronouncements, do you bother to actually read and try to find out if any Jews were at the Azusa Street Revival in the early 1900's? LA was a rather international city even then, and there was a synagogue in town since 1862. Look at the following account. Why would you write about it without researching it? According to this account, there was at least one Jew at Azusa Street.
They Speak With Other TonguesDuring my research I was in correspondence with one of the few surviving eyewitnesses to the Azusa Street revival. He is Mr. Harvey McAlister of Springfield, Missouri, who wrote me that he had visited the Mission himself many times. He had one especially interesting incident to relate:“My brother, Robert E. McAlister, now deceased, was in Los Angeles when the following incident took place and he reported it to me. The girl, whom I knew intimately, and I heard the incident also from her parents, was Kathleen Scott.“This … took place in what is known as Old Azusa Street Mission. People traveled from every part of the world to investigate what was happening there. There was a large auditorium with an ‘Upper Room,’ upstairs. The place was open day and night for several years, with preaching services two or three times daily, and people in prayer in the Upper Room day and night. At the close of the preaching, crowds would retire to the Upper Room to pray. When time came for preaching, someone would ring a bell and all would come downstairs for the services.“Kathleen was in the Upper Room, teenage, at this particular time. A man entered the building, the service now being in process, and hearing people pray, he ventured upstairs to the prayer room. The moment he entered, Kathleen, moved by the Spirit, arose and pointed to the man as he stood at the head of the stairway, and spoke in a language other than her own for several minutes.“The ringing of the bell, calling the people to the preaching service, interrupted. All the people arose and made their way to the stairway. The man, as Kathleen approached the stairs, took her arm and directed her downstairs to the speaker’s desk and waited until order was restored in the auditorium. Then he spoke.“ ‘I am a Jew, and I came to this city to investigate this speaking in tongues. No person in this city knows my first or my last name, as I am here under an assumed name. No one in this city knows my occupation, or anything about me. I go to hear preachers for the purpose of taking their sermons apart, and using them in lecturing against the Christian religion.“ ‘This girl, as I entered the room, started speaking in the Hebrew language. She told me my first name and my last name, and she told me why I was in the city and what my occupation was in life, and then she called upon me to repent. She told me things about my life which it would be impossible for any person in this city to know.’“Then [Mr. McAlister’s letter concludes], the man dropped to his knees and cried and prayed as though his heart would break.”Harvey McAlisterEndnote1. From John L. Sherrill, They speak With Other Tongues (New York: McGraw Hill, 1964), 41,42.
(Emphasis mine)That was from a quick Google search to see if there were any Jews at the Azusa Street Revival, and it is yet another account of people hearing their own language at Azusa Street.
 

presidente

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I have no problem with that, because the Jews were scattered through the known world. The sign gifts were for unbelieving Jews to convince them that these men spoke from GOD, these new words that became our New Testament.
In Acts 15, we read this,Acts 15Then all the multitude kept silence, and gave audience to Barnabas and Paul, declaring what miracles and wonders God had wrought among the Gentiles by them.(Bolded emphasis mine). You can also look at the healing of the lame man in Lystra, after which the pagans nearly sacrified to Paul and Barnabas, but they stopped them. That doesn't sound like a Jewish audience.Signs and wonders are not exclusively for Jews.
Many of them would become converted because it was a fulfillment of Old Testament prophecy. The last verse of Mark is where we learn the purpose for giving those sign gifts, but clearly because that purpose came to an end, so did the sign gifts. Here is that verse in Young's Literal Translation:Mark 16:20 (YLT) [SUP]20 [/SUP] and they, having gone forth, did preach everywhere, the Lord working with them, and confirming the word, through the signs following. Amen.
The word is true whether God bears witness to it with signs and wonders on a particular occasion or not. Who do the signs bear witness to? To the particular audience that witnesses the signs. If Peter preached in Jerusalem and did signs and wonders, the folks up in Joppa who weren't there did not see the signs and wonders. Peter did miracles in Joppa.There is no reason to think that the purpose of signs and wonders is over and done with. There are still groups of people who have not heard the Gospel for the first time. And some of those people in Judea and Galilee who'd seen signs before might have seen them over again later. The Bible never teaches the past signs of Peter or Paul confirmed the Bible once and for all. The signs confirm the word for the audience witnessing the signs and the moment, if God chooses to confirm the word with signs and wonders. Signs and wonders confirming the word is presented as something 'repeatable' in scripture, not a one off thing. Peter did signs, wonders and miracles in Jerusalem. Then he did them in Joppa. Paul performed a miracle in Lystra, but then performed them again in other places like Ephesus. Peter did not say, "Hi, Aeneaus, the Lord used me to heal people like you in Jerusalem. My reading this account about it to you serves the exact same purpose as if you were healed were healed and you could walk, and you and everyone else can believe just as easy if I tell you about the miracles in Jerusalem or if you read about it as if you saw one for yourselves. So you are not going to be healed today because it would serve no purpose."
Now JESUS also confirmed His resurrection by appearing to Jews, because the Jews required a sign before they would believe wholeheartedly. Notice, even the Disciples struggled with having that ability to Believe that wholeheartedly, when the women came back from the tomb. And when JESUS had confirmed HIS Resurrection to enough of His Jewish followers to make it solidly CONFIRMED, what happened? HE ascended into heaven and CEASED to appear before believers as a sign of His Resurrection.
But then the apostles bore witness to the resurrection with great power.Is this the way you argue doctrine? Arriving at a conclusion first, and then trying to find some pattern than weakly supports your idea? And do you really believe the reason ascended was just because He'd confirmed His resurrection? What about all that in the book of John about His leaving and sending the Spirit? And in Acts 2, the Spirit being poured out is associated with people prophesying, etc.
So did the Apostles and Disciples continue to speak in Tongues with unbelieving Jews hearing every word in their own native dialect after the New Testament was completed?
It has happened since that people have experienced this, and happens on occasion according to the Lord's will, whether with unbelieving Jews, Gentiles, and it can even happen with believers if the Lord so chooses. There is nothing in the Bible to limit God from giving out speaking in tongues only when unbelieving Jews are present, and nothing in the Bible that limits God from having those present who understand the tongues spoken.And also in I Corinthians, there were those speaking in tongues with the others present in the congregation who could not understand. Paul wanted these messages in tongues interpreted to edify the body. There is a gift of interpretation of tongues.
No that genuine Gift of Tongues ceased in mainline Churches all together.
Ceased in the mainline churches? That doesn't sound like a good explanation of church history. If you think tongues ceased, and I wouldn't agree with that though it wasn't something that was common enough to be that widely documented during many parts of history... but if you believe that, then do you think the 'mainline churches' formed after the Protestant Reformation and then tongues ceased in those Protestant denominations?
The ecstatic utterence style of tongues continued as popular as ever in the Mystery Religions, with an occasional appearance throughout history in Pseudo Christian Cults.
Irenaeus' who lived around 200 AD, and wrote a book against the heresies, wrote of speaking in tongues, prophecy, and foreknowledge in his own day. He said his church had had success at raising the dead. Your theory that 'speaking in tongues' was 'ecstatic utterance' doesn't fit well with your theory that it came about from a priest of Apollo saying 'Say batta'. Either it's ecstatic or they just repeat stuff. And it looks disrespectful or almost blasphemous to call that stuff 'speaking in tongues' which is the term used for the gift of the Spirit. By the way, is your source for all this John MacArthur and other secondary sources? How much of the evidence to form your view did you collect from primary sources? Why don't you show the quotes?I've already pointed out why 'ecstatic utterances' is an inaccurate label for modern speaking in tongues.
 

VCO

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Oct 14, 2013
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. . . By the way, is your source for all this John MacArthur and other secondary sources? How much of the evidence to form your view did you collect from primary sources? Why don't you show the quotes? I've already pointed out why 'ecstatic utterances' is an inaccurate label for modern speaking in tongues.
I told you it is time we AGREE TO DISAGREE, and time I put you on my ignore list.


Resource material used:
Holy Bible – KJV, NKJV, NAS, NIV, RSV, TLB, & TEV
Vine’s Expository Dictionary
Strong’s Exhaustive Concordance
The Interpreter’s Dictionary of the Bible
Fausset’s Bible Dictionary
HOLMAN Exhaustive Concordance of the Bible/Hebrew – Aramaic & Greek Dictionary
Encyclopedia of Religion and Ethics
New Catholic Encyclopedia
Encyclopedia Americana
Encyclopedia Britannica
Dallas Thological Seminary publications
“The Mystery Religions” book by Samuel Angus
“The Psychology of Speaking in Tongues” book by John P Kildahl
“The Baptism & Gifts of the Holy Spirit” book by Dr. Merrill Unger
“The Charismatics” book by Dr. John MacArthur, Jr.
“Spiritual Gifts” study guide by Dr. John MacArthur, Jr.
“The Truth About Tongues” tape series by Dr. John MacArthur, Jr.
“Spiritual Gifts” tape series by Chuck Swindoll
“Spiritual Gifts” tape series by Dr. Ed Young
“Spiritual Gifts?” a tape by Ben Alexander (ex-Pentecostal & Assembly of God)
“The Gift of Tongues?” a tape by Dr. Jack MacArthur
“The Baptism of the Spirit” video tape by Dr. Gil Rugh (“Truth or Tradition” series)
Personal interview with Pastor Neil Beery (IFCA Interim Pastor at Calvary Baptist Church, Susanville, Ca.)
 

VCO

Senior Member
Oct 14, 2013
11,995
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113
I certainly works, all of his posts are gone.