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By oldhermit
I. The Disintegration of the God Culture and the Dominance of the Godless Culture, 1-12.
A. What was the cause? The marriage of two very diverse cultures.
1. Sons of God – the descendants of Seth
2. Daughters of men – the descendants of Cain.
B. Results – The abandonment of God.
1. Judgment is pronounced. God gives humanity 120 years until the destruction of the flood.
2. The rise of the Nephilim - This is not necessarily causal since they were already in the land.
3. The collapse of moral ethics. There seems to be a progression of wickedness from verse three. Seems to be an undisclosed amount of time lapsed between verse 3 and verse 12. The heart is now only evil continually. Seems to be no redeeming value left.
4. God is heart-broken. Destruction of all life is pronounced, 7.
5. The earth is filled with violence.
C. God preserves the righteous remnant. God always sees and remembers the righteous, 8. In this, God tempers judgment with mercy.
I. The Disintegration of the God Culture and the Dominance of the Godless Culture, 1-12.
A. What was the cause? The marriage of two very diverse cultures.
1. Sons of God – the descendants of Seth
2. Daughters of men – the descendants of Cain.
B. Results – The abandonment of God.
1. Judgment is pronounced. God gives humanity 120 years until the destruction of the flood.
2. The rise of the Nephilim - This is not necessarily causal since they were already in the land.
3. The collapse of moral ethics. There seems to be a progression of wickedness from verse three. Seems to be an undisclosed amount of time lapsed between verse 3 and verse 12. The heart is now only evil continually. Seems to be no redeeming value left.
4. God is heart-broken. Destruction of all life is pronounced, 7.
5. The earth is filled with violence.
C. God preserves the righteous remnant. God always sees and remembers the righteous, 8. In this, God tempers judgment with mercy.
With respect to OH, I believe the sons of God were beings(angels) created by God, and they left their living place and came to earth and took human women as wives and had sons by them who were men of unusual ability. This is explained in the OT and backed up in the NT. Anyway, God was very displeased with the angels who did this and placed then in a prison in Hades until judgment day. The obvious question is, how could angels have sex with humans and produce children. Most folks think that angels cannot have sex because in the age to come people will not marry but will be equal to the angels. So because of this conflict some have come up with an alternate explanation which was what OH gave.
Hello Mother5,
The son's of God in Gen.6:1,4 is another designation for angels. This same designation is used in Job 1:6, 2:1.
The scripture in Gen.6:1 is in reference to the angels who had take for themselves wives from the progeny of mankind. And by doing so they defiled them selves. These son's of God, the angels, are most likely the same angels that both 2 Peter 2:4 and Jude 6 refer to who were put in chains of darkness in Tartarus under the earth until the day of judgment.
It was due to the offspring of these angels who became giants, as well as all that the angels taught mankind, and thereby corrupting the inhabitants of the earth. These were the major reasons for the flood. The world had been altered by the angels, the son's of God.
Hope this was beneficial.
The son's of God in Gen.6:1,4 is another designation for angels. This same designation is used in Job 1:6, 2:1.
The scripture in Gen.6:1 is in reference to the angels who had take for themselves wives from the progeny of mankind. And by doing so they defiled them selves. These son's of God, the angels, are most likely the same angels that both 2 Peter 2:4 and Jude 6 refer to who were put in chains of darkness in Tartarus under the earth until the day of judgment.
It was due to the offspring of these angels who became giants, as well as all that the angels taught mankind, and thereby corrupting the inhabitants of the earth. These were the major reasons for the flood. The world had been altered by the angels, the son's of God.
Hope this was beneficial.
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"Sons of God" is a term that seems to always applied to men. There does not seem to be any place in scripture where this term is ever applied to angels as many suppose with one possible exception and that is Job 38:6-7 but even this is inconclusive. Scripture must ALWAYS be allowed to define its own use of language.
In these two texts, we see the presentation of the sons of God. The presentation of one's self before God is precisely what those in the Levitical system did who brought their sacrifices to the altar. God told them that when they brought their gifts to the altar he would meet them their and bless them and forgive their sins. This is indicative of an act of worship. There is no reason that this is not simply referring to the worshipers of God - sons of God who lived in the time of Job. It seems rather obvious that Job is one of these and God points him out to Satan and asks have you considered my servant Job? Would this not seem to better fit the context?