The Bible does separate it, it's just that you can't, because doing so would expose your doctrines and traditions as comeing from man and not from God.
Rom. 3:27 Where is boasting then? It is excluded. By what law? of works? Nay: but by the law of faith.
Tow laws GP.
Yes, this is the law of Faith.
Heb. 7:11 If therefore perfection were by the Levitical priesthood, (for under it the people received the law,) what further need was there that another priest should rise after the order of Melchisedec, and not be called after the order of Aaron?
15 And it is yet far more evident: for that after the similitude of Melchisedec there ariseth another priest,
16 Who is made, not after the law of a carnal commandment, (Levite appointing a Levite.)but after the power of an endless life.
18 For there is verily a disannulling of the commandment going before for the weakness and unprofitableness thereof.
This is the Law of Works
19 For the law made nothing perfect, but the bringing in of a better hope did; by the which we draw nigh unto God.
What Law makes nothing perfect? "If therefore perfection were by the Levitical priesthood,"
Rom. 3:28 Therefore we conclude that a man is justified by faith without the deeds of the law.
Two laws GP, one that Abraham kept, (Law of Faith) and one that was "ADDED" 430 years later(Law of Works) as Paul preaches. (Gal. 3:17)
On the "Law of Works" he says: "28 Therefore we conclude that a man is justified by faith without the deeds of the law."
On the "law of Faith" he says: Rom. 2:12 For as many as have sinned without law shall also perish without law: and as many as have sinned in the law shall be judged by the law;
13 (For not the hearers of the law are just before God, but the doers of the law shall be justified.
There are, once again, two issues here. "Hearing of Faith" and "Works of the Law". The exact same thing Paul said in Romans 3. "Law of Works" vs. "Law of Faith".
Just because some religious franchise owner doesn't talk about this stuff doesn't mean it isn't in the Bible.
Only a mainstream preacher could, with a straight face, preach that the Galatians were suddenly trying to walk in the same Commandments Jesus walked in, and that is why Paul rebuked them.
Wow, so you equate Loving the Lord with all your heart, as the same as killing a goat and sprinkling it's blood on the Alter for the remission of my sins?
Really GP? You really preach that Paul is rebuking the Galatians because they were trying to keep God's Ten Commandments?
Is that the "Work" they are guilty of?
Under the law means dead in my sins. I'm about what the Bible teaches not the Catholic church.
Matt. 19:17 And he said unto him, Why callest thou me good? there is none good but one, that is, God: but if thou wilt enter into life, keep the commandments.
18 He saith unto him, Which?
Which laws GP? The "Law of Works" or "The Law of Faith".
Jesus said, Thou shalt do no murder, Thou shalt not commit adultery, Thou shalt not steal, Thou shalt not bear false witness,
He left a few out, like the First and greatest Commandment among others, but I think He got his point across, don't you?
He didn't mention the Levites here, or the works of the Levitical Priesthood. Do you preach He meant to?
Once again that is your preaching to be sure. Only a Mainstream Preacher, can suggest with a straight face, that if I follow the instructions Jesus just gave, I am cursed.
Was Abraham cursed or blessed for following God's instructions? Show me one example of a person in the entire Bible that was cursed for following God's instructions?
I am afraid you have built your entire doctrine on falsehoods like the Pharisees were trying to obey God. God's Commandments are a burden on mankind, and there is no separating the "Law of Works" from the "Law of Faith", even though Jesus, Paul, Moses, Abraham, and the rest of the Bible does.
Galatians 3:10-12
[/COLOR]10 For as many as are of the works of the law are under the curse: for it is written, Cursed is every one that continueth not in all things which are written in the book of the law to do them.
What are the "Works of the law" in your religion GP? Is it "Thou shall love the Lord thy God with all your heart"?
Or is it as Hebrews and Paul preaches, the Levitical Priesthood "Law of Works" for the remission of sins?
11 But that no man is justified by the law in the sight of God, it is evident: for, The just shall live by faith.
What Law GP? "Thou shall love the Lord thy God with all thy heart"? Or is he speaking about the Levitical Priesthood "works of the Law" for the remission of sins.
What Law id he speaking to here GP? Is the Commandment "Thou shall love the Lord your God with all your heart" part of the Law of works Paul speaks of in Romans 3, or is it part of the "Law of Faith" that Jesus said to do to go to heaven?
So loving an invisible God who said He would be silent is not part of the "Law of Faith", but taking a goat to some Levitical Priest to shed it's blood because I cheated on my wife is part of the "Law of Faith".
My belief doesn't make the Bible or Jesus a liar. But it does bring your preaching into question.
Rom. 3:27 Where is boasting then? It is excluded. By what law? of works? Nay: but by the law of faith.
Tow laws GP.
Yes, this is the law of Faith.
Heb. 7:11 If therefore perfection were by the Levitical priesthood, (for under it the people received the law,) what further need was there that another priest should rise after the order of Melchisedec, and not be called after the order of Aaron?
15 And it is yet far more evident: for that after the similitude of Melchisedec there ariseth another priest,
16 Who is made, not after the law of a carnal commandment, (Levite appointing a Levite.)but after the power of an endless life.
18 For there is verily a disannulling of the commandment going before for the weakness and unprofitableness thereof.
This is the Law of Works
19 For the law made nothing perfect, but the bringing in of a better hope did; by the which we draw nigh unto God.
What Law makes nothing perfect? "If therefore perfection were by the Levitical priesthood,"
Rom. 3:28 Therefore we conclude that a man is justified by faith without the deeds of the law.
Two laws GP, one that Abraham kept, (Law of Faith) and one that was "ADDED" 430 years later(Law of Works) as Paul preaches. (Gal. 3:17)
On the "Law of Works" he says: "28 Therefore we conclude that a man is justified by faith without the deeds of the law."
On the "law of Faith" he says: Rom. 2:12 For as many as have sinned without law shall also perish without law: and as many as have sinned in the law shall be judged by the law;
13 (For not the hearers of the law are just before God, but the doers of the law shall be justified.
There are, once again, two issues here. "Hearing of Faith" and "Works of the Law". The exact same thing Paul said in Romans 3. "Law of Works" vs. "Law of Faith".
Just because some religious franchise owner doesn't talk about this stuff doesn't mean it isn't in the Bible.
Only a mainstream preacher could, with a straight face, preach that the Galatians were suddenly trying to walk in the same Commandments Jesus walked in, and that is why Paul rebuked them.
Wow, so you equate Loving the Lord with all your heart, as the same as killing a goat and sprinkling it's blood on the Alter for the remission of my sins?
Really GP? You really preach that Paul is rebuking the Galatians because they were trying to keep God's Ten Commandments?
Is that the "Work" they are guilty of?
Under the law means dead in my sins. I'm about what the Bible teaches not the Catholic church.
Matt. 19:17 And he said unto him, Why callest thou me good? there is none good but one, that is, God: but if thou wilt enter into life, keep the commandments.
18 He saith unto him, Which?
Which laws GP? The "Law of Works" or "The Law of Faith".
Jesus said, Thou shalt do no murder, Thou shalt not commit adultery, Thou shalt not steal, Thou shalt not bear false witness,
He left a few out, like the First and greatest Commandment among others, but I think He got his point across, don't you?
He didn't mention the Levites here, or the works of the Levitical Priesthood. Do you preach He meant to?
Once again that is your preaching to be sure. Only a Mainstream Preacher, can suggest with a straight face, that if I follow the instructions Jesus just gave, I am cursed.
Was Abraham cursed or blessed for following God's instructions? Show me one example of a person in the entire Bible that was cursed for following God's instructions?
I am afraid you have built your entire doctrine on falsehoods like the Pharisees were trying to obey God. God's Commandments are a burden on mankind, and there is no separating the "Law of Works" from the "Law of Faith", even though Jesus, Paul, Moses, Abraham, and the rest of the Bible does.
Galatians 3:10-12
[/COLOR]10 For as many as are of the works of the law are under the curse: for it is written, Cursed is every one that continueth not in all things which are written in the book of the law to do them.
What are the "Works of the law" in your religion GP? Is it "Thou shall love the Lord thy God with all your heart"?
Or is it as Hebrews and Paul preaches, the Levitical Priesthood "Law of Works" for the remission of sins?
11 But that no man is justified by the law in the sight of God, it is evident: for, The just shall live by faith.
What Law GP? "Thou shall love the Lord thy God with all thy heart"? Or is he speaking about the Levitical Priesthood "works of the Law" for the remission of sins.
What Law id he speaking to here GP? Is the Commandment "Thou shall love the Lord your God with all your heart" part of the Law of works Paul speaks of in Romans 3, or is it part of the "Law of Faith" that Jesus said to do to go to heaven?
So loving an invisible God who said He would be silent is not part of the "Law of Faith", but taking a goat to some Levitical Priest to shed it's blood because I cheated on my wife is part of the "Law of Faith".
My belief doesn't make the Bible or Jesus a liar. But it does bring your preaching into question.
11 [FONT="]If therefore perfection were by the Levitical priesthood, [/FONT][FONT="](for under it the people received the law,) [/FONT][FONT="]what further need was there that another priest should rise after the order of Melchisedec, and not be called after the order of Aaron?[/FONT][FONT="]12 For the priesthood being changed, there is made of necessity a change also of the law.
For under it the people received THE LAW.
Not the "law" of the levites. The people did not receive that law the levites did. The people worked at the 10 commandments.
The levites and only the levites worked at the "levitical" law.
Now, let's look at verse 12. What law is being referenced here? You look up to the verse above it and it tells you. For under the Levitical Priesthood the people received the law, the Mosaic Law, including the 10 commandments.
It can't be referencing a "levitical" law because the people didn't receive levitical laws. Only the Priests worked at the levitical laws.
So when the Lord says He would give us rest did He just mean rest from sacrificing animals?
When the Lord said not one jot or one tittle would fall from the law until all was fulfilled that didn't include your "levitical law"? How come the Lord was not more specific? Was it because none of it could be separated, it is all one big package?[/FONT]