KING JAMES VERSION BIBLE VS. MODERN ENGLISH BIBLES
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It is an occult axiom and has no place in the Bible! Blavatsky used that exact phrase in the 1800s in Isis unveiled. Albert Pike used it in Morals and Dogma in the same century. You need to figure out whose side you are on! A christian didn't insert the phrase into the Message Bible...an occultist did!
You are accusing Eugene Peterson of being an occultist. I think you need more evidence than a single questionable phrase.
Shall I remind you that most of the major pseudo-Christian cults were founded when the KJV was the primary Bible in English? Shall I remind you that many heterodox beliefs on the fringes of Christianity are the result of misinterpreting the KJV? Do you really want to reduce this issue to half a verse taken out of context?
Shall I remind you that most of the major pseudo-Christian cults were founded when the KJV was the primary Bible in English? Shall I remind you that many heterodox beliefs on the fringes of Christianity are the result of misinterpreting the KJV? Do you really want to reduce this issue to half a verse taken out of context?
I do examine my posts for logic, and though I occasionally have to edit things, this isn't one of those times. You quoted, "By their fruits you shall know them" in response to my question, "What makes you think that satan was not at work in the development and translation of the KJV just as much as with newer translations?" My rhetorical questions follow the flow of thought.
Can you find evidence of any actual person promoting a false teaching that is based entirely on the wording of a recent translation? Alleged false teachings based on a KJV-onlyist's interpretation of something in a recent translation do not count. Since you argue for examination of fruit, please present the fruit for examination.
Can you find evidence of any actual person promoting a false teaching that is based entirely on the wording of a recent translation? Alleged false teachings based on a KJV-onlyist's interpretation of something in a recent translation do not count. Since you argue for examination of fruit, please present the fruit for examination.
Of course the one phrase does not "equal" the other... that's why it's called a paraphrase. However, given that KJV-onlyists will argue that any change in wording makes the other version "not equal", I would disregard this line of reasoning as irrelevant.
Nobody needs to deny the occult usage of the phrase; that is a burden-of-proof reversal. You need to provide evidence of the linkage and intention instead of simply pointing out a correlation which could as easily be quite innocent.
Nobody needs to deny the occult usage of the phrase; that is a burden-of-proof reversal. You need to provide evidence of the linkage and intention instead of simply pointing out a correlation which could as easily be quite innocent.