could someone who believes it is so, tell me how is KJV's rendition of Hebrews 4:8 perfect and every other version corrupt?
KJV: "if Jesus had given them rest, he would not afterward have spoken of another day"
most every other version: "if Joshua had given them rest .."
context is Israel did not receive enter into rest when they entered Canaan, because of unbelief, and then later through David in the Psalms God appoints another day for rest, "today" --- to me it looks like both a blasphemous statement in KJV to say Jesus was unable to give rest, and an obvious mistranslation given the timeline of events the context is describing.
i know some of you here say everything in KJV is 100% perfect, so how do you make sense of this?