Baptism: is it required to be baptized in water?

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DJ2

Senior Member
Apr 15, 2017
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Jesus fulfilled all righteousness. You cannot.
The question was not who could fulfill all righteousness but are there any consequences to not fulfilling all righteousness?
 

preston39

Senior Member
Dec 18, 2017
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The thief on the cross beside Jesus had not been baptized,

This is not known..from scripture....

and Jesus replied to him "Truly I tell you, today you will be with me in Paradise." Luke 23:43

There is only one requirement for eternal life "very truly I tell you, whoever hears my words and believes him who sent me has eternal life

Not per scripture;

Repentance
Baptism
Righteous living until the end....Is required.
I hasten...if we believe ..we will do The Father's will.


and will not be judged but has crossed over from death to life." John 5:24. This will best explain it: https://www.gotquestions.org/baptism-salvation.html
I...,

One cannot take scripture out of context and then conclude. One will usually be wrong...as we see here.
 

Magenta

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Jul 3, 2015
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The question was not who could fulfill all righteousness but are there any consequences to not fulfilling all righteousness?
I guess you fail to understand that your question is made moot by the very fact that you cannot fulfill all righteousness. In other words, you ask a senseless question. We put on the righteousness of Christ. He alone fulfilled all righteousness.
 
I

IAm1

Guest
Not baptized? How do you know such a thing?
Christian Baptism had not been extended yet, as Christ's blood had not be shed for the forgiveness of man's sins, nor had Jesus died. John's baptism was for the forgiveness of sins, which looked forward to Calvary, where the sacrifice of Christ was going to be made for mankind's sins. The baptism that we receive illustrates a believer's identification with Christ's death, burial and resurrection; it is not a baptism of repentance. Thus, the thief could not have received it. Prior to His Ascension, Jesus gave the "Great Commission", which includes the baptism we receive today, not the baptism of John.
“Or don't you know that all of us who were baptized into Christ Jesus were baptized into His death? We were therefore buried with him through baptism into death in order that, just as Christ was raised from the dead through the glory of the Father, we too may live a new life.” Rom 6:3-4 The action of being immersed in the water illustrates dying and being buried with Christ. The action of coming out of the water pictures Christ’s resurrection. There is no indication in scripture that John baptised in the name of the Father, Son, and Holy Ghost; the name of Jesus Christ.
 
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Magenta

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M...,

Please define..."all righteousness"...?
Don’t you know that all of us who were baptized into Christ Jesus were baptized into his death? We were therefore buried with him through baptism into death in order that, just as Christ was raised from the dead through the glory of the Father, we too may live a new life. Romans 6:3-4

This baptism into Christ is not accomplished with ordinary water. All four gospels attest to the fact that Jesus baptizes with the Holy Spirit, which water symbolizes.

"Whoever believes in me, as the Scripture has said, ‘Out of
his heart will flow rivers of living water.’”
John 7:38

Jesus said to her, “Everyone who drinks of this water will be thirsty again, but whoever drinks of the water that I will give him will never be thirsty again. The water that I will give him will become in him a spring of water welling up to eternal life.” John 4:13b-14

And he said to me, “It is done! I am the Alpha and the Omega, the beginning and the end. To the thirsty I will give from the spring of the water of life without payment." Rev 21:6

The Spirit and the Bride say, “Come.” And let the one who hears say,“Come.” And let the one who is thirsty come; let the one who desires take the water of life without price. Rev 22:17

With joy you will draw water from the wells of salvation. Isa 12:3

Then the angel showed me the river of the water of life, bright as crystal, flowing from the throne of God and of the Lamb. Rev 22:1

On the last and greatest day of the festival, Jesus stood and said in a loud voice, “Let anyone who is thirsty come to me and drink. Whoever believes in me, as Scripture has said, rivers of living water will flow from within them.” By this he meant the Spirit, whom those who believed in him were later to receive. John 7:37-39a

They shall hunger no more, neither thirst anymore; the sun shall not strike them, nor any scorching heat. For the Lamb in the midst of the throne will be their shepherd, and he will guide them to springs of living water, and God will wipe away every tear from their eyes. Rev 7:16-17

Jesus answered her, “If you knew the gift of God, and who it is that is saying to you, ‘Give me a drink,’ you would have asked him, and he would have given you living water.” John 4:10

Jesus’ baptism symbolized His coming ministry to “fulfill all righteousness," pointing forward to His future death as the spotless Lamb of God sacrificed to pay the sin debt of the world. His baptism also identified Him to John, and affirmed John's ministry as the forerunner of the promised Messiah.

Jesus did not need John's baptism of repentance, for He had no sin to repent of. His baptism did identify Him as the One Who would be the sin bearer and Whose baptism of the Holy Spirit would regenerate us to new life, in being born again of the Spirit through faith in His work on our behalf due to His great and everlasting love for us... for the flesh counts for nought.

Christians are encouraged to be baptized because it symbolizes the death of our old life of rebellion against God.

 

DJ2

Senior Member
Apr 15, 2017
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I guess you fail to understand that your question is made moot by the very fact that you cannot fulfill all righteousness. In other words, you ask a senseless question. We put on the righteousness of Christ. He alone fulfilled all righteousness.
The question is by no means "moot".

Jesus answered him, “This is the way it has to be now. This is the proper way to do everything that God requires of us.
Matthew 3:15

Regardless of why, there is a proper way to do everything that God requires of us. There is no putting on of His righteousness without our obedience.

Christians are never encouraged to be baptized, they are commanded to be baptized.
 
I

IAm1

Guest
The question is by no means "moot".

Matthew 3:15

Regardless of why, there is a proper way to do everything that God requires of us. There is no putting on of His righteousness without our obedience.

Christians are never encouraged to be baptized, they are commanded to be baptized.
Wasn't dodging your question, I answered it at #945. And in respect to your question "are there any consequences to not fulfilling all righteousness" I have a difficult time believing that someone with the Holy Spirit in them would not want to put on the righteousness of Jesus Christ, via of following the leading of the Spirit in regard to baptism. The Spirit brings conviction if one is disobedient, and with disobedience how will there be peace? It would be wise to be obedient to the One you love.
 
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Oct 6, 2017
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The question is by no means "moot".

Matthew 3:15

Regardless of why, there is a proper way to do everything that God requires of us. There is no putting on of His righteousness without our obedience.

Christians are never encouraged to be baptized, they are commanded to be baptized.
You make your comments as though you believe there are those in this thread that do not understand that baptism is a command. I have not read that any where, unless I've possibly missed it somewhere along the way. Are there any other commands of works of righteousness whereby my eternal security can be hinged upon, or does this solely apply to baptism? I believe this would be extremely important to consider if we are to base our salvation on our ability to fulfill righteousness. It would seem to be an imposable task considering God looks on our righteousness as filthy rags. So, to what avail are works of righteousness? How can they be accomplished and not be a vile thing in the sight of God? Does adding my righteousness to the grace of God satisfy the requirements for salvation, or should we be obedient as a children adopted into the family of God fulfilling all righteousness in the context of sanctification that our righteousness not be soiled?
 

blue_ladybug

Senior Member
Feb 21, 2014
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Getting baptized in water does NOT gain us salvation. All we need is grace, faith and belief. :)
 

blue_ladybug

Senior Member
Feb 21, 2014
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The bible commands it, that's true. :) BUT getting immersed in water does NOT give us salvation. God's grace through OUR faith and belief in Him is what saves us... so getting dunked in water will NOT save you, nor get you to heaven.

b...,

The Bble commands it.

What are you following to conclude that?
 

notuptome

Senior Member
May 17, 2013
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I...,

You are almost there. Perhaps a little more study will work.

Baptism is required as the final cleansing step of removing sin.

I suggest you go thru The Bible and list all references. They are convincing.
Here it is.

The admission that grace is insufficient and water baptism must be included or a man is not saved.

For the cause of Christ
Roger
 
I

IAm1

Guest
You make your comments as though you believe there are those in this thread that do not understand that baptism is a command. I have not read that any where, unless I've possibly missed it somewhere along the way. Are there any other commands of works of righteousness whereby my eternal security can be hinged upon, or does this solely apply to baptism? I believe this would be extremely important to consider if we are to base our salvation on our ability to fulfill righteousness. It would seem to be an imposable task considering God looks on our righteousness as filthy rags. So, to what avail are works of righteousness? How can they be accomplished and not be a vile thing in the sight of God? Does adding my righteousness to the grace of God satisfy the requirements for salvation, or should we be obedient as a children adopted into the family of God fulfilling all righteousness in the context of sanctification that our righteousness not be soiled?
The command of baptism can be seen in Matt. 28:19-20 "Therefore go and make disciples of all nations, baptizing them in the name of the Father and of the Son and of the Holy Spirit, and teaching them to obey everything I have commanded you. And surely I am with you always, to the very end of the ages." This command might be seen as instructional in that it was instructing the disciples on how to baptize new converts, and it shows us that the baptism that Jesus was commanding is very different from the one that than John the Baptist had initiated; a baptism for repentance. With this in mind, it could be concluded that Jesus expected that those who came to faith in Him would be expected to be baptised. More specifically, the Holy Spirit would direct them that baptism is a necessary outward proclamation of an inward conversion, a ceremonial act undertaken upon accepting Jesus Christ as Lord and Saviour. Considering it is command for the disciples to do, then it is reasonable to conclude that there is a reciprocating factor in which Jesus is also commanding those who came to faith in Him to be baptized.
 

Magenta

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Jul 3, 2015
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The command of baptism can be seen in Matt. 28:19-20 "Therefore go and make disciples of all nations, baptizing them in the name of the Father and of the Son and of the Holy Spirit, and teaching them to obey everything I have commanded you. And surely I am with you always, to the very end of the ages." This command might be seen as instructional in that it was instructing the disciples on how to baptize new converts, and it shows us that the baptism that Jesus was commanding is very different from the one that than John the Baptist had initiated; a baptism for repentance. With this in mind, it could be concluded that Jesus expected that those who came to faith in Him would be expected to be baptised. More specifically, the Holy Spirit would direct them that baptism is a necessary outward proclamation of an inward conversion, a ceremonial act undertaken upon accepting Jesus Christ as Lord and Saviour. Considering it is command for the disciples to do, then it is reasonable to conclude that there is a reciprocating factor in which Jesus is also commanding those who came to faith in Him to be baptized.
That is a command given to the apostles TO baptize, not to BE baptized.
 
I

IAm1

Guest
That is a command given to the apostles TO baptize, not to BE baptized.
Understood, but please read my entire comment. If Jesus gave the command, then it would be reasonable to conclude that He wanted those who came to faith in Him to be baptized. In other words, the Holy Spirit would command or direct baptism of the believer. Jesus is not separate from the Holy Spirit, which guides us in our walk. Therefore, such a command would be given with the expectation that the person coming into faith in Him, is also under direction to be baptised. Why would Jesus give such a command if He did not require that the convert (follower) to be baptized? Jesus sets the standard with His baptism by John, and following His baptism Jesus began His ministry. We are to follow, and following requires obedience to direction or command.
 

notuptome

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May 17, 2013
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The command of baptism can be seen in Matt. 28:19-20 "Therefore go and make disciples of all nations, baptizing them in the name of the Father and of the Son and of the Holy Spirit, and teaching them to obey everything I have commanded you. And surely I am with you always, to the very end of the ages." This command might be seen as instructional in that it was instructing the disciples on how to baptize new converts, and it shows us that the baptism that Jesus was commanding is very different from the one that than John the Baptist had initiated; a baptism for repentance. With this in mind, it could be concluded that Jesus expected that those who came to faith in Him would be expected to be baptised. More specifically, the Holy Spirit would direct them that baptism is a necessary outward proclamation of an inward conversion, a ceremonial act undertaken upon accepting Jesus Christ as Lord and Saviour. Considering it is command for the disciples to do, then it is reasonable to conclude that there is a reciprocating factor in which Jesus is also commanding those who came to faith in Him to be baptized.
This is a very common misinterpretation of the passage in Mat 28. The context is making disciples through instruction of Who Christ is and teaching them to obey Christ in belief.

The Greek uses the word baptizo which makes is highly unlikely that water baptism is the subject of the passage.

Teaching them of the Father, the Son and the Holy Spirit is doctrinal not ritual.

For the cause of Christ
Roger
 
I

IAm1

Guest
This is a very common misinterpretation of the passage in Mat 28. The context is making disciples through instruction of Who Christ is and teaching them to obey Christ in belief.

The Greek uses the word baptizo which makes is highly unlikely that water baptism is the subject of the passage.

Teaching them of the Father, the Son and the Holy Spirit is doctrinal not ritual.

For the cause of Christ
Roger
In some respect they are being taught of the Father, Son, and Holy Spirit, but in this context they are actually being baptized in the name of the Father, the Son and the Holy Spirit. We agree that the word "baptizing" used in Mat 28:19 comes from the Greek baptizo; however, according to Strongs (G0907) and other texts it means: to immerse, submerge; to make whelmed (i.e. fully wet); used only (in the New Testament) of ceremonial ablution, especially (technically) of the ordinance of Christian baptism: — Baptist, baptize, wash.

Jesus was not commanding them to baptise them with His Spirit, which had not yet come, only God can do that. This is why John the Baptist said he needed to be baptized by Him.
 
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hornetguy

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Jan 18, 2016
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In some respect they are being taught of the Father, Son, and Holy Spirit, but in this context they are actually being baptized in the name of the Father, the Son and the Holy Spirit. We agree that the word "baptizing" used in Mat 28:19 comes from the Greek baptizo; however, according to Strongs (G0907) and other texts it means: to immerse, submerge; to make whelmed (i.e. fully wet); used only (in the New Testament) of ceremonial ablution, especially (technically) of the ordinance of Christian baptism: — Baptist, baptize, wash.
Wait a minute.... let's don't confuse this issue by bringing facts into it....:rolleyes:
 

Magenta

Senior Member
Jul 3, 2015
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Understood, but please read my entire comment. If Jesus gave the command, then it would be reasonable to conclude that He wanted those who came to faith in Him to be baptized. In other words, the Holy Spirit would command or direct baptism of the believer. Jesus is not separate from the Holy Spirit, which guides us in our walk. Therefore, such a command would be given with the expectation that the person coming into faith in Him, is also under direction to be baptised. Why would Jesus give such a command if He did not require that the convert (follower) to be baptized? Jesus sets the standard with His baptism by John, and following His baptism Jesus began His ministry. We are to follow, and following requires obedience to direction or command.
Jesus never commanded anyone to be baptized, but TO baptize. Since there are those who are saying it is a command to BE baptized, I would like to see where this is specifically articulated, without saying what you have just said, in drawing conclusions from the command that was actually given.