** The Septuagint version is ""Women will be preserved through the bearing of children"
That verse isn't in the Septuagint
** The Septuagint version is ""Women will be preserved through the bearing of children"
Why did Paul say women will be saved through childbearing?
1 Timothy 2:15
11 A woman should learn in quietness and full submission. 12 I do not permit a woman to teach or to assume authority over a man; she must be quiet. 13 For Adam was formed first, then Eve. 14 And Adam was not the one deceived; it was the woman who was deceived and became a sinner. 15 But women will be saved through childbearing, if they continue in faith, love and holiness with sobriety.
That verse isn't in the Septuagint
You are correct. the LXX version is as follows: "σωθήσεται δὲ διὰ τῆς τεκνογονίας ἐὰν μείνωσιν ἐν πίστει καὶ ἀγάπῃ καὶ ἁγιασμῷ μετὰ σωφροσύνης "
The translation (NASB version) of the LXX does contain: ""Women will be preserved through the bearing of children"
Thank you for the correction.
Blade
Yes, and in context, the woman is Eve.
Women are not saved by bearing children, they are saved through the birth of "the Child".
Husband and wife like the father and son submit to one another in mutual love . One having a greater position, not greater authority.
Linking 1 Timothy 2:15 to Eve's or Mary' childbirth is untenable IMO because it says a woman will be saved (singular) through her childbearing (genitive) if they (women) continue in godly behavior. Obviously neither Eve nor Mary will be saved (in any way) through other women's godly behavior. IMO Paul makes an uncomfortable and unfortunate switch to the plural in the last part of that verse. We all do things like that.
Christ is above us in more than position! though He makes Himself servant, He is King and Lord and God.
it's harmonious with what's said in 1 Cor. however -- in vv. 25-26 here the husband is instructed to love the wife in the same way that Christ loves the church: He gave His body for her ((though this Last Adam did not compromise His Spirit on her behalf, as the first Adam did)).
so i am thinking, there is an equality with regard to the body, but there is properly an order of authority with regard to what is not of the body.
The point I was trying to make is the Son has a mutual authority same as the father . Christ said: The father and I are one ... always have been .
Just as mankind, the husband and the wife, two are needed to establish a loving government . One would be higharchy .(The father of lies the god of this world)
God is one just as husband and wife were created before the fall
IMO scripture is God breathed, and while it may be uncomfortable, it is not unfortunate
((pokes at HRFTD))
the association with Eve is immediate, i think - that's what the two verses right before this statement are about! Adam and Eve are being put as an example for us to explain the reasoning. any association with Mary is derived through the association with Eve and the promise made in the curse of the Serpent, of salvation through the birth of a child, 'the Seed of the woman'
What I meant was that NT verse is not in the LXX. The LXX is the OT; it doesn't have the NT in it. Whatever bible you're reading from is the LXX with an added NT.