Did Jesus Have The Human Sinful Nature?

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GodisONE

Active member
#961
Jul 11, 2018
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#961
DevotiontoBible said:
What the law could not do since it was limited by the flesh, God did. He condemned sin in the flesh by sending His own Son in flesh like ours under sin’s domain, and as a sin offering,
Romans 8:3 HCSB
https://bible.com/bible/72/rom.8.3.HCSB

The law of Moses was unable to save us because of the weakness of our sinful nature. So God did what the law could not do. He sent his own Son in a body like the bodies we sinners have. And in that body God declared an end to sin’s control over us by giving his Son as a sacrifice for our sins.
Romans 8:3 NLT
https://bible.com/bible/116/rom.8.3.NLT

What the Law could not do, because human nature was weak, God did. He condemned sin in human nature by sending his own Son, who came with a nature like our sinful nature, to do away with sin.
Romans 8:3 GNT
https://bible.com/bible/68/rom.8.3.GNT

It is impossible to do what God’s standards demand because of the weakness our human nature has. But God sent his Son to have a human nature as sinners have and to pay for sin. That way God condemned sin in our corrupt nature.
Romans 8:3 GW
https://bible.com/bible/70/rom.8.3.GW

Here it is in four translations saying that Jesus had our sinful human nature.
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here is the Jewish translation and you will notice Yeshua has similar type of nature but without sin attached to it:

Romans 8:3 CJB
For what the Torah could not do by itself, because it lacked the power to make the old nature cooperate, God did by sending his own Son as a human being with a nature like our own sinful one [but without sin]. God did this in order to deal with sin, and in so doing he executed the punishment against sin in human nature,
 
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DevotiontoBible

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Jan 6, 2018
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#962
GodisONE said:
here is the Jewish translation and you will notice Yeshua has similar type of nature but without sin attached to it:

Romans 8:3 CJB
For what the Torah could not do by itself, because it lacked the power to make the old nature cooperate, God did by sending his own Son as a human being with a nature like our own sinful one [but without sin]. God did this in order to deal with sin, and in so doing he executed the punishment against sin in human nature,
Click to expand...
The brackets mean the editors added that and "without sin" means Jesus never sinned yet His nature was a "sinful one". It says that right there in your translation.
 
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DevotiontoBible

Senior Member
#963
Jan 6, 2018
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#963
shrume said:
Not true.


Adam did not have a sin nature before he sinned. He was tempted, and sinned, and acquired a sin nature. His nature literally changed. He became "crafty", he became fearful, he blame-shifted. We all inherit that nature.

Jesus did not, because his Father is THE Father.
Click to expand...
But we do have a sin nature and Jesus would not be tempted in every way like us if He was not like us in every way.
 
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GodisONE

Active member
#964
Jul 11, 2018
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#964
DevotiontoBible said:
The brackets mean the editors added that and "without sin" means Jesus never sinned yet His nature was a "sinful one". It says that right there in your translation.
Click to expand...
it means, He had a human form but was not brought into the world like we are under the condition of Adam's sin [cursed]. it was His duty to fulfill the LAW, which only someone sinless could do. had He been born with sin attached to Him, then He would have been held to the LAW. since He had no sin attached to Him, He was able to replace the LAW.

therefore, He was absolutely 100% sinless in ALL THINGS!!

understanding He was here to end the LAW is the key:
once you apply that knowledge, you understand He had to be without sin!!
 
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DevotiontoBible

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Jan 6, 2018
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GodisONE said:
it means, He had a human form but was not brought into the world like we are under the condition of Adam's sin [cursed]. it was His duty to fulfill the LAW, which only someone sinless could do. had He been born with sin attached to Him, then He would have been held to the LAW. since He had no sin attached to Him, He was able to replace the LAW.

therefore, He was absolutely 100% sinless in ALL THINGS!!
Click to expand...
You don't understand. Our sin nature does not mean we have sin attached to us. It means our human nature has been damaged by Adam. It is a non moral condition.
 
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GodisONE

Active member
#966
Jul 11, 2018
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#966
DevotiontoBible said:
You don't understand. Our sin nature does not mean we have sin attached to us. It means our human nature has been damaged by Adam. It is a non moral condition.
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I understand.

but that cannt be the condition of someone who is replacing the LAW.

when we are born, we are held to the LAW due to our inherited sin.
but Yeshua was never held to the LAW because He was sinless.
this is why He could fulfill it and end it.

big big difference.

the LAW is key here.
Yeshua had to be SINLESS to replace the LAW!!
 
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GodisONE

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Jul 11, 2018
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#969
do you still believe you are held under the LAW?

or

do you believe you are under the GRACE of God?




if you believe you are under GRACE, then you must understand that could only happen by someone fulfilling it who never had sin attached to them. and if you feel Yeshua fulfilled the LAW and now you are under GRACE due to Him, you must accept He never was truly like us with sin. because one minute spec of sin would have caused Him to be held to the LAW. and that meant He could not fulfill it or end it.

but if you believe He did fulfill and end the LAW, then you must believe it's because He was sinless in ALL THINGS from birth till He drank the CUP.


he wept because He had to drink the cup.
why?
because this would be the first time He experienced sin.
 
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GodisONE

Active member
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Jul 11, 2018
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#970
GodisONE said:
do you still believe you are held under the LAW?

or

do you believe you are under the GRACE of God?




if you believe you are under GRACE, then you must understand that could only happen by someone fulfilling it who never had sin attached to them. and if you feel Yeshua fulfilled the LAW and now you are under GRACE due to Him, you must accept He never was truly like us with sin. because one minute spec of sin would have caused Him to be held to the LAW. and that meant He could not fulfill it or end it.

but if you believe He did fulfill and end the LAW, then you must believe it's because He was sinless in ALL THINGS from birth till He drank the CUP.


he wept because He had to drink the cup.
why?
because this would be the first time He experienced sin.
Click to expand...


scripture said He wept BLOOD.
BLOOD was dripping from Him because He did not want to experience sin.
He was perfect in every way.
as God, He never knew sin.
as God, He was as opposite to sin as you get.
and He wept BLOOD because He had to drink the CUP of SIN to SAVE YOU and ME!!

that is how much HE LOVE US!!
 
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shrume

Senior Member
#972
Jun 26, 2017
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#972
DevotiontoBible said:
Only if He sinned then He would need saving.
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All humans born into this world descended from Adam need salvation, whether they sin individually or not.

Jesus was not descended from Adam on his Father's side, he did not have the sin nature.

All we're doing is repeating ourselves... i'm signing off. :)
 
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DevotiontoBible

Senior Member
#973
Jan 6, 2018
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#973
shrume said:
Actually, it does.

We were "sold under sin" by Adam.


Right. Jesus' wasn't.
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No, it doesn't. That is why we are no longer slaves to our sinful nature because Jesus was not a slave to it. He had our sinful nature so He could free us from it just like He was:

The law of Moses was unable to save us because of the weakness of our sinful nature. So God did what the law could not do. He sent his own Son in a body like the bodies we sinners have. And in that body God declared an end to sin’s control over us by giving his Son as a sacrifice for our sins. He did this so that the just requirement of the law would be fully satisfied for us, who no longer follow our sinful nature but instead follow the Spirit.
Romans 8:3‭-‬4 NLT
https://bible.com/bible/116/rom.8.3-4.NLT
 
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OstrichSmiling

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#974
Jun 17, 2018
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#974
shrume said:
All humans born into this world descended from Adam need salvation, whether they sin individually or not.

Jesus was not descended from Adam on his Father's side, he did not have the sin nature.

All we're doing is repeating ourselves... i'm signing off. :)
Click to expand...
Amen. Do you ever wonder if threads that circle endlessly like this due to one obstinate viewpoint actually have a wager behind them in the unbelievers world or site? How many pages can you get actual Christians to take a topic that is already indisputable in the Bible? :giggle: 50?
 
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DevotiontoBible

Senior Member
#975
Jan 6, 2018
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#975
shrume said:
All humans born into this world descended from Adam need salvation, whether they sin individually or not.

Jesus was not descended from Adam on his Father's side, he did not have the sin nature.

All we're doing is repeating ourselves... i'm signing off. :)
Click to expand...
All the aborted babies had no chance of hearing the Gospel, repentance and having faith so they could be saved. Are you telling me in addition to them being murdered before they had a chance to be born they must spend eternity in hell since they could not get saved?
 
CS1

CS1

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#976
May 23, 2012
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#976
DevotiontoBible said:
That's your opinion that Jesus did not have the sinful nature but I provided four Bible translations saying the opposite.
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no you did not you took four translations out of context by word Manipulation . You have not shown any scriptures that say Jesu had a sinful nature in the bible no matter what translation you use. maybe in the book of mormons or the JW's but not from Christian orthodox Bible.
 
Nehemiah6

Nehemiah6

Senior Member
#977
Jul 18, 2017
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#977
CS1 said:
no you did not you took four translations out of context by word Manipulation . You have not shown any scriptures that say Jesu had a sinful nature in the bible no matter what translation you use. maybe in the book of mormons or the JW's but not from Christian orthodox Bible.
Click to expand...
People promoting false doctrines (such as this about Jesus having a sin nature) always manipulate Scripture. And many translations are based upon corrupted manuscripts and critical texts, which was also a manipulation of Scripture by heretics.
 
CS1

CS1

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May 23, 2012
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#978
shrume said:
If it was not possible for Jesus to sin, then he wasn't really tempted.

Jesus was tempted to turn stones into bread. He was hungry, he hadn't eaten in a long time. He was tempted to do it, and he could have done it, but chose not to.
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that is human reasoning I say that respectfully, tempting is done by one to another Jesus did not look at the rocks when He was hungry an thought to himself "let me change these rocks to Bread". No the Word of God says the very suggestion came from who? The devil . It was the devil who thought Jesus would do it. Jesus would not break the word of God which would be sin, so Jesus in the temptation (which it is not self-induced ) refused to be a willful participant to the suggestion or temptation. The devil can tempt; that does not mean you have the ability to sin because one suggesting to sin. This too should seeing what Jesus said in Matthew 5 about looking on women to lust IN his heart There is the sin.

James 1:14 confirms this :
"
But every man is tempted, when he is drawn away of his own lust, and enticed.

Jesus did not have lust in His heart. Jesus allowed Himself to be tempted to show us how to live godly lives.

Hebrews 4:15
"For we have not an high priest which cannot be touched with the feeling of our infirmities; but was in all points tempted like as we are, yet without sin."

How could HE be tempted and not sin? the word is Clear HE had NO lust of the flesh to cause HIM to sin. That did not mean the devil would not try.
 
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shrume

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Jun 26, 2017
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#979
CS1 said:
that is human reasoning I say that respectfully, tempting is done by one to another Jesus did not look at the rocks when He was hungry an thought to himself "let me change these rocks to Bread". No the Word of God says the very suggestion came from who? The devil . It was the devil who thought Jesus would do it. Jesus would not break the word of God which would be sin, so Jesus in the temptation (which it is not self-induced ) refused to be a willful participant to the suggestion or temptation. The devil can tempt; that does not mean you have the ability to sin because one suggesting to sin. This too should seeing what Jesus said in Matthew 5 about looking on women to lust IN his heart There is the sin.

James 1:14 confirms this :
"
But every man is tempted, when he is drawn away of his own lust, and enticed.

Jesus did not have lust in His heart. Jesus allowed Himself to be tempted to show us how to live godly lives.

Hebrews 4:15
"For we have not an high priest which cannot be touched with the feeling of our infirmities; but was in all points tempted like as we are, yet without sin."

How could HE be tempted and not sin? the word is Clear HE had NO lust of the flesh to cause HIM to sin. That did not mean the devil would not try.
Click to expand...
I think you’re missing the point. Jesus, in his humanity, was actually tempted , and could have sinned.

He chose not to. He remained obedient to the Father.
 
CS1

CS1

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May 23, 2012
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#980
shrume said:
I think you’re missing the point. Jesus, in his humanity, was actually tempted , and could have sinned.

He chose not to.
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it is not sin to be tempted. And no He could not sin because HE is God . And God does not sin. Temptation is not an act of sin. Just because one is tempted does not mean they sin.
 
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