Here's where the "proleptic 'you'" factors in, which means "all those in the future, of the same category" (so "a believing remnant of Israel," having come to faith WITHIN the future [far future] tribulation years. THEY are the specific ones who will be giving out the "INVITATION" to "the wedding FEAST/SUPPER" [their promised and prophesied EARTHLY Millennial Kingdom, OF/TO WHOM *THAT* was promised]--WE ['the Church which is His body'] are not doing that, either NOW or THEN--not our assigned task! Ours pertains to "the MARRIAGE" itself... [Rev19:7 (singular "Bride/WIFE", and aorist, at the time of Rev19) distinct from 19:9 (plural guests), etc...])
Till the Son of man be come
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Here's where the "proleptic 'you'" factors in, which means "all those in the future, of the same category" (so "a believing remnant of Israel," having come to faith WITHIN the future [far future] tribulation years. THEY are the specific ones who will be giving out the "INVITATION" to "the wedding FEAST/SUPPER" [their promised and prophesied EARTHLY Millennial Kingdom, OF/TO WHOM *THAT* was promised]--WE ['the Church which is His body'] are not doing that, either NOW or THEN--not our assigned task! Ours pertains to "the MARRIAGE" itself... [Rev19:7 (singular "Bride/WIFE", and aorist, at the time of Rev19) distinct from 19:9 (plural guests), etc...])
So we go from the disciples going to all the cities of Israel with the message of Repent the kingdom of heaven is at hand to a believing remnant of Jews giving out invitations to the wedding feast. Are we basing that on the proleptic "you"?
1. You say that matt 10 specifically for 12 apostle to whom Jesus direct talk.
With your theory, matt 10 not applicable to Paul. Now you give Paul as example, So your theory not fit
2. You reverse the order.
Your theory put verse 23 happen before verse 18. That is not appropriate to reverse the Bible.
If there were not a ton of other reasons, NO, it would not be "based" merely on this.
Again, Paul (regarding "the Church which is His body") also makes use of the "proleptic 'you'" when speaking to, for, and about "the Church which is His body" which includes all believers of "this present age [singular]," rather than, say, for example, when he used the word "you" in 2Cor11:2 the [faulty] idea that he was ONLY referring to the then-current [listeners/readers] Corinthians (rather than the entire "Church which is His body"--believers throughout "this present age" [not to all other saints of all OTHER time periods: not to OT saints, not to Trib saints, not to MK saints]).
So, with regard to the Olivet Discourse (and associated passages), it becomes a matter of ascertaining chronology and who is being talked to/for/about, and what the subject is... [etc]. I supplied some of that in an early post, I think...
